Answer:
42 square inches
Step-by-step explanation:
Area of a triangle = (1/2)(base)(height)
A = 1/2(12)(7)
A = 1/2(84)
A = 42
I suppose you just have to simplify this expression.
(2ˣ⁺² - 2ˣ⁺³) / (2ˣ⁺¹ - 2ˣ⁺²)
Divide through every term by the lowest power of 2, which would be <em>x</em> + 1 :
… = (2ˣ⁺²/2ˣ⁺¹ - 2ˣ⁺³/2ˣ⁺¹) / (2ˣ⁺¹/2ˣ⁺¹ - 2ˣ⁺²/2ˣ⁺¹)
Recall that <em>n</em>ª / <em>n</em>ᵇ = <em>n</em>ª⁻ᵇ, so that we have
… = (2⁽ˣ⁺²⁾ ⁻ ⁽ˣ⁺¹⁾ - 2⁽ˣ⁺³⁾ ⁻ ⁽ˣ⁺¹⁾) / (2⁽ˣ⁺¹⁾ ⁻ ⁽ˣ⁺¹⁾ - 2⁽ˣ⁺²⁾ ⁻ ⁽ˣ⁺¹⁾)
… = (2¹ - 2²) / (2⁰ - 2¹)
… = (2 - 4) / (1 - 2)
… = (-2) / (-1)
… = 2
Another way to get the same result: rewrite every term as a multiple of <em>y</em> = 2ˣ :
… = (2²×2ˣ - 2³×2ˣ) / (2×2ˣ - 2²×2ˣ)
… = (4×2ˣ - 8×2ˣ) / (2×2ˣ - 4×2ˣ)
… = (4<em>y</em> - 8<em>y</em>) / (2<em>y</em> - 4<em>y</em>)
… = (-4<em>y</em>) / (-2<em>y</em>)
… = 2
Answer:
I believe the correct answer is A.
In order to solve or know the probability of having 2 girls
and 2 boys, assumed that a girl is as likely as a girl at each birth, pascal’s
triangle will be likely used. And we will be referring to the line 4 of pascal’s
triangle, which was 1 4 6 4 1. Then it
will look like this: 1 = 4 girls; 4 = 3 girls & 1 boy; 6 = 2 girls & 2
boys; 4 = 3 boys & 1 girl; 1 = 4 boys. And now for the solution in order to
get the probability of having 2 girls and 2 boys is to divided into the sum of 1+4+6+4+1.
