Hello,
Looking at the data, you should go with the second and fourth results.
On the second one, Dr. Appiah's M.A.D. is only 9.7 which is less than Dr. Singh's M.A.D. of 14.1
On the fourth one, Dr. Cantwell and Dr. Singh both have a M.A.D. that is only 0.1 from 14, so their ages vary by about the same amount.
Best of luck,
MrEQ
Answer:
2(x+1)= 2x+2.
Step-by-step explanation:
Because, there is a on infront of x so you do 2x1=2 so 2x+2 because 2x1=2
First way
arcsin(1/4) means that 1/4 sin of the angle.
sin(α)=1/4
sin²α+cos²α=1
(1/4)²+cos²α=1
cos²α=1-1/16 =15/16
cosα=+/-(√15)/4
<span>Second way
</span>
sin(α)=1/4 =opposite leg/hipotenuse
cos(α)=adjacent leg/hypothenuse
adjacent leg =√(hypotenuse²- Opposite²)=√(16-1)=√15
cosα=+/-√15/4
For one value of sinα, possible 2 values of cosα.
Answer: x=-3/4
Step-by-step explanation:
Since we know f(x)=6, we can set it equal to the equation.
6=9+4x [subtract 9 on both sides]
-3=4x [divide both sides by 4]
x=-3/4
Answer:
The value of b is 3
Step-by-step explanation:
mx is the slope and b is the y intercept. I hope this helps!
