<span>The Supreme Court is most likely to be accused of judicial activism in cases involving: protection of individual rights.
Writing for the conservative group, <em>The Heritage Foundation</em>, Elizabeth Slattery defines judicial activism as "w</span><span>hen judges fail to apply the Constitution or laws impartially according to their original public meaning, regardless of the outcome, or do not follow binding precedent of a higher court and instead decide the case based on personal preference."
Cases involving individual rights are likely to elicit charges of judicial activism because the Constitution does not spell out each and every sort of right citizens may have. New questions come up that were not considered or specified at the time the Constitution was written. For instance, <em>Roe v. Wade </em>(1973) addressed the question of abortion and an individual's right to privacy. <em>Obergefell v. Hodges </em>(2015) addressed the legality of same-sex marriage. Both are cases of individual rights, where the Constitution did not give direct instruction on the issues at stake. The decisions on those issues, to allow abortion and to allow same-sex marriage, both are criticized by conservatives as instances of judicial activism.</span>
The correct answer is C) Appeasement.
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The key term is Winston Churchill blaming as a cause for World War II is "Appeasement."
The policy of appeasement was the act of giving in to Hitler's demands in exchange for peace.
The policy of appeasement was supported by British Prime Minister Neville Chamberlain as a way to avoid another big war such as World War It consisted of giving Adolph Hitler some European territories such as Czechoslovakia, under the Agreement of Munich of September 30, 1938.
Winston Churchill considered this a wrong decision that put Great Britain in a weak position against Adolph Hitler. And he was right.
Cuba gained independence from Spain, <span>Philippines was annexed and war torn, and Hawaii eventually became a US state. </span>
These countries differ in many ways: linguistically speaking, Poland an Serbia, which are slavic, do not share the same origins with Hungary, which is not an Indo-European language. Secondly, Poland and Hungary are countries which did not separate themselves, nor socially, nor geographically after 1989 when communism ceased to exist as Serbia used to belong to a bigger country, Yugoslavia, in the past.