Answer:
$225.54 (hope it help)
Step-by-step explanation:
for 2nd week
$150 for the first week and a raise of 6% each week
which means 150+6%
6% of 150 is 9 (150x0.06)
150+9=159
and it repeats
for 3rd week
6% of 159 is 9.54 (159x0.06)
159+9.54=168.54
for 4th week
6% of 168.54 is 10.1124 (168.54x0.06)
168.54+10.1124=178.652
for 5th week
6% of 178.652 is 10.71912 (178.652x0.06)
178.652+10.71912=189.37112
an easier to do it is to just do 178.652 + 6% on your calculater
and I'll skip all the way to the 8th since you know the formula
212.777390432+6%=225.544033858
225.544033858≈225.54
Answer:
Option C is right
C. They are independent because, based on the probability, the first ace was replaced before drawing the second ace.
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that the probability of drawing two aces from a standard deck is 0.0059
If first card is drawn and replaced then this probability would change. By making draws with replacement we make each event independent of the other
Drawing ace in I draw has probability equal to 4/52, when we replace the I card again drawing age has probability equal to same 4/52
So if the two draws are defined as event A and event B, the events are independent
C. They are independent because, based on the probability, the first ace was replaced before drawing the second ace.
Answer:
1) x(x+7)
3) (x+5)*(x+4)
4) (x-6)*(x-8)
5) x(2x+21)+11
6) 5(a-5)*(a+5)
7) (4x+3)*(2x-3)
8) 4( x²-6xy+8)
Step-by-step explanation:
Let's solve your equation step-by-step.<span><span><span>2<span>(<span>h−8</span>)</span></span>−h</span>=<span>h−16</span></span>Step 1: Simplify both sides of the equation.<span><span><span>2<span>(<span>h−8</span>)</span></span>−h</span>=<span>h−16</span></span><span>Simplify: (Show steps)</span><span><span>h−16</span>=<span>h−16</span></span>Step 2: Subtract h from both sides.<span><span><span>h−16</span>−h</span>=<span><span>h−16</span>−h</span></span><span><span>−16</span>=<span>−<span>16
</span></span></span>Step 3: Add 16 to both sides.<span><span><span>−16</span>+16</span>=<span><span>−16</span>+16</span></span><span>0=0</span>Answer:<span>All real numbers are solutions.</span>
Answer with Step-by-step explanation:
We are given that
and 
are linearly independent.
By definition of linear independent there exits three scalar 
and 
such that
Where 
We have to prove that 
and 
are linearly independent.
Let 
and 
such that
...(1)
..(2)
..(3)
Because and are linearly independent.
From equation (1) and (3)
...(4)
Adding equation (2) and (4)
From equation (1) and (2)
Hence, and area linearly independent.
