Since f(x) is (strictly) increasing, we know that it is one-to-one and has an inverse f^(-1)(x). Then we can apply the inverse function theorem. Suppose f(a) = b and a = f^(-1)(b). By definition of inverse function, we have
f^(-1)(f(x)) = x
Differentiating with the chain rule gives
(f^(-1))'(f(x)) f'(x) = 1
so that
(f^(-1))'(f(x)) = 1/f'(x)
Let x = a; then
(f^(-1))'(f(a)) = 1/f'(a)
(f^(-1))'(b) = 1/f'(a)
In particular, we take a = 2 and b = 7; then
(f^(-1))'(7) = 1/f'(2) = 1/5
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When the x-intercept solution of a system of two-variable equations is plugged in, the equations yield the same value. Thus, for the points to be solutions, F(x) = G(x)
The only option that shows this is C, where
F(8) = G(8) and F(24) = G(24)
Answer:
7,9,11,13 = 40
Step-by-step explanation:
second number is 9
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Upton group totally