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Brrunno [24]
3 years ago
10

A U.S. citizen accrued $120,000 of creditable foreign taxes last year. The citizen's foreign tax credit limitation for last year

is $90,000 (only a single limitation need be calculated). The excess foreign tax credit limitation for the year preceding the year in which the excess foreign taxes were incurred is $2,000. A similar $2,000 excess foreign tax credit limitation position is expected in each of the next 10 years.
What portion of the excess foreign taxes can be expected to be noncreditable because of the foreign tax credit limitation?
A) $0
B) $2,000
C) $8,000
D) none of the above
Business
1 answer:
grandymaker [24]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

C) USD 8,000

Explanation:

Excess credits can be transferred back one year and can be moved ten years, or a sum of 11 (eleven) years. The credits that are anticipated  to be not used are  USD 16,000 So,

= ((USD 30,000 - (USD 2,000 × 11)).

= USD 8000/-

You might be interested in
How physical assets valuation and development and research pose risk.<br>​
Alex Ar [27]

Answer:

The differences between US GAAP and IFRS pose an extra cost because international corporations must prepare two separate accounting statements. But besides that, other potential risks include paying higher taxes than what the companies should pay int their home countries and the uncertainty generated by changing rules.

Not only do current tax rates affect potential investments, e.g. currently companies in the US pay relatively low corporate taxes (Tax Cuts and Jobs Act of 2017) but these benefits end on 2025. But also different methods for valuating physical assets and R&D costs can represent higher than expected taxes. E.g. depending on a company's needs, it may be beneficial to expense all R&D costs right away, or maybe it would be better to capitalize some of them after technical feasibility is achieved (IFRS).

The main advantage of having uniform rules (e.g. UCC) is that all the companies know exactly what to expect and how to act. Certainty decreases risk, and less risk reduces costs.

Explanation:

In the US, the vast majority of firms use US GAAP as their accounting method, but around the world the IFRS method is used.

Physical asset valuation is the process of determining the value of your physical assets including P, P & E, and also inventories.

  • When valuing inventories IFRS uses FIFO, while US GAAP allows FIFO, LIFO or weighted average costing methods. US GAAP also values inventory at lesser of cost or market value, while IFRS values inventory at lesser of cost or net realizable value.
  • US GAAP uses the cost method to determine the historic cost of an asset, while IFRS uses basically the same method but does not include all the costs of location of the assets (e.g. cost of removing or clearing a facility).
  • US GAAP recognizes non-monetary exchanges while IFRS doesn't.
  • IFRS also allows the cost of asset to be revalued, which can result in unrealized gains or losses. The US GAAP only considers historic costs.
  • There are also other minor differences regarding depreciation, disposals and impairment rules.

Research and development must be expensed right away under US GAAP, while IFRS basically requires the same, it allows some capitalization of development expenditures if certain criteria is met (technical feasibility is achieved).

7 0
3 years ago
On January 1, Feld traded a delivery truck and paid $10,000 cash for a tow truck owned by Baker. The delivery truck had an origi
S_A_V [24]

Answer:

gain on disposal                     30,000

Explanation:

First we do the numbers for the old truck:

Asset        140,000

Acc Dep          80,000

Book Value  60,000

Now, becuase there are commercial subtance we will recognize the dgain or loss at disposal.

Total given-up for the tow truck

bake tow truck                      100,000

cash                                     <u>   (10,000)  </u>

Baker valuation of our truck  90,000

book value                             (60,000)

gain on disposal                     30,000

<u>journal entry</u>

tow truck                      100,000

acc dep delivery truck   80,000

    cash                                                   10,000

   delivery truck                                   140,000

   gain on disposal                                30,000

7 0
4 years ago
Old Economy Traders opened an account to short-sell 1,000 shares of Internet Dreams from the previous problem. The initial margi
Inessa [10]

Answer:

A. 38%

B. NO

C. -150%

Explanation:

A.Calculation for What is the remaining margin in the account

Remaining margin=(1,000 shares*$40 per share*50%) /[(1,000 shares*$50 per share )+ ($2 per share*1,000)]

Remaining margin=$20,000/($50,000+$2,000)

Remaining margin=$20,000/$52,000

Remaining margin=0.38*100

Remaining margin=38%

Therefore the remaining margin in the account will be 38%

B. In a situation where the maintenance margin requirement is 30 percent, Old Economy will NOT receive a margin call reason been that based on the above Calculation the margin is 38% which means that it is abovethe maintenance margin requirement of 30%.

C. Calculation for What is the rate of return on the investment

Rate of return=[(1,000 shares*$40 per share)-(1,000 shares*$50 per share )] -(1,000 shares*$40 per share*50%) ÷(1,000 shares*$40 per share*50%)

Rate of return=($40,000-$50,000) -$20,000 ÷ $20,000

Rate of return = (-$10,000 -$20,000)/$20,000

Rate of return =-$30,000/$20,000

Rate of return = -1.5*100

Rate of return = -150%

Therefore rate of return on the investment will be -150%

3 0
3 years ago
A company purchases new equipment for $72,000 cash on August 1, 2018. At the time of purchase, the equipment is expected to be u
Likurg_2 [28]

Answer:

The adjusting entry for depreciation on December 31, 2018:

Debit Depreciation expense $7,500

Credit Accumulated depreciation $7,500

Explanation:

The company purchases new equipment on August 1, 2018. At the time of purchase, the equipment is expected to be used in operations 48 months. The company depreciates the equipment evenly over the 48 months ($1,500/month). From August 1, 2018 to December 31, 2018, the equipment is expected to be used for 5 months.

Depreciation expense for 2018 = $1,500 x 5 = $7,500

The adjusting entry for depreciation on December 31, 2018:

Debit Depreciation expense $7,500

Credit Accumulated depreciation $7,500

6 0
4 years ago
If the demand for product x is inelastic, a 4 percent decrease in the price of x will.
NeTakaya

A 4 percent decrease in the price will lead to an increase in the quantity demanded by less than 4 percent.

<h3>What is demand?</h3>

Demand simply means the amount of goods and services that a buyer wants to buy at a particular price and time.

When the demand for product x is inelastic, a 4 percent decrease in the price of x will lead to an increase in the quantity demanded by less than 4 percent.

Learn more about demand on:

brainly.com/question/1245771

3 0
2 years ago
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