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hjlf
3 years ago
13

As a preferred stockholder, you are entitled to numerous preferences and privileges over common stockholders. If you are a prefe

rred stockholder of a company that has fallen on economic hardship and is likely to go bankrupt, which preference or privilege of preferred stock is going to be most useful to you
Business
1 answer:
Kobotan [32]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

asset distribution preference

Explanation:

In such a situation the preference or privilege that would be best for you is known as asset distribution preference or liquidation preference. This is a clause that dictates that the payout in case of a corporate liquidation (such as when they are about to go bankrupt) must first go to the preferred stockholders in order for them to get their money back first. Therefore, since you are a preferred stockholder this would be the biggest privilege for you, allowing you to recover your money quickly and move on to something else.

You might be interested in
Two or more organizations that join forces in order to achieve advantages that neither can perform as well alone are known as __
SpyIntel [72]

Answer:

correct answer is Strategic allies

Explanation:

Strategic allies is a arrangement between 2 or more than 2 organization for undertaking mutual beneficial projects even both retain their independence.

as they have less complex than a joint venture  

and for improving their product and development competitor in the market , they can enter into a strategic alliance

so as that both organizations can work on common coal with benefit

so correct answer is Strategic allies  

5 0
3 years ago
Problem 7-5 Coupon Rates [LO2] Gabriele Enterprises has bonds on the market making annual payments, with eight years to maturity
kakasveta [241]

Answer:

5.32%

Explanation:

The computation of the coupon rate on the bonds is shown below:

As we know that

Current price = Annual coupon × Present value of annuity factor(6.1%,8 ) + $1,000 × Present value of discounting factor(6.1%,8)

$952 = Annual coupon × 6.18529143 + $1,000 × 0.622697222

Annual coupon is

= ($952 - 622.697222) ÷ 6.18529143

= $53.24

Now

Coupon rate is

= Annual coupon ÷ Face value

= $53.24 ÷ $1,000

= 5.32%

Working notes:

1. Present value of annuity is

= Annuity × [1 - (1 + interest rate)^-time period] ÷ rate

= Annual coupon × [1 - (1.061)^-8] ÷ 0.061

= Annual coupon × 6.18529143

And,

2.Present value of discounting factor is

= $1,000 ÷ 1.061^8

= $1000 × 0.622697222

4 0
2 years ago
Due to budget restrictions, a business school could afford to hire only one new faculty member for the next academic year. Howev
kakasveta [241]

The correct answer would be, Compromise.

After a lengthy discussion, it was decided that the budget would be hired for the next year. In this situation, Compromise strategy of conflict management is used.  

Explanation:

In simple words, Conflict Management is the management of Conflict between two parties, or between two issues. In this process, the negative aspects of the issue are lowered while positive aspects are being highlighted.

Compromise is that strategy of Conflict Management in which a settlement is made below the desired standards in order to resolve the conflict.

So when temporary faculty is hired in the school instead of the need of permanent faculty, due to the shortage of budget, Compromise Strategy of Conflict Management is being used.

Learn more about Conflict Management at:

brainly.com/question/12441613

#LearnWithBrainly

3 0
4 years ago
The current price of a non-dividend-paying stock is $40. Over the next year it is expected to rise to $42 or fall to $37. An inv
jek_recluse [69]

Answer:

D. $0.93

Explanation:

Upmove (U) = High price/current price

                    = 42/40

                    = 1.05

Down move (D) = Low price/current price

                          = 37/40

                          = 0.925

Risk neutral probability for up move

q = (e^(risk free rate*time)-D)/(U-D)

  = (e^(0.02*1)-0.925)/(1.05-0.925)

  = 0.76161

Put option payoff at high price (payoff H)

= Max(Strike price-High price,0)

= Max(41-42,0)

= Max(-1,0)

= 0

Put option payoff at low price (Payoff L)

= Max(Strike price-low price,0)

= Max(41-37,0)

= Max(4,0)

= 4

Price of Put option = e^(-r*t)*(q*Payoff H+(1-q)*Payoff L)

                               = e^(-0.02*1)*(0.761611*0+(1-0.761611)*4)

                               = 0.93

Therefore, The  value of each option using a one-period binomial model is 0.93

8 0
3 years ago
Acellus Businesses management
Kobotan [32]
Here is the answer

https://www.science.edu/Acellus/curriculum/career-technical-education-courses/lesson-lists/Business%20Management%20Curriculum.pdf
7 0
3 years ago
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