Answer:
A Bond's current market value represented by 
is the present value of a bond as on today. Present value of a bond is it's future cash flows in the form of coupon payments and principal repayment discounted at investor's expectation in the market also referred to as Yield to maturity(YTM).
Present value of a bond is given by the following equation,
where C= Annual coupon payments
YTM = Yield to maturity/ cost of debt/ market rate of return on similarly priced bonds
RV = Redemption value of bond
n = number of years to maturity
<u>a. A bond's coupon rate is higher than it's yield to maturity, then the bond will sell for more than face value.</u>
Hence, if the company pays more interest than what is paid in the market on similarly priced bonds, such bonds shall sell at more than their face value.
<u>b. If a bond's coupon rate is lower than it's yield to maturity, then the bond's price will increase over it's remaining maturity.</u>
Similarly, if a bond pays lower rate of interest than the market rate of interest on similarly priced bonds, the bond shall sell at lower than it's face value and the price will increase over the remaining life of such bonds.
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "D": Departments determine their needs and relate them to the overall goals.
Explanation:
The bottom-up budgeting approach consists in giving each department within a firm the power of setting and controlling their budget according to the projects the department intends to develop that matches with the ultimate goal of the organization as a whole. It might be beneficial because each department is likely to come up with a budget that adjusts better to their needs but it could represent a headache for the company when it comes to racking each expense for each area.
Answer:
The answer would be neutrality of money theory
Explanation:
The neutrality of money theory claims that changes in the money supply affect the prices of goods, services, and wages but not overall economic productivity. Many of today's economists believe the theory is still applicable, at least over the long run.
Answer:
1- Wages Expense (Dr.) $1,025
Wages Payable (Cr.) $1,025
2- Wages Expense (Dr.) $1,845
Wages Payable (Cr.) $1,025
Cash (Cr.) $820
Explanation:
Wages expense = $205 * 5 days a week = $1,025 per week.
Wages expense = $205 * 4 days a week = $820 per week.
