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laiz [17]
3 years ago
12

The term demand loan refers to a loan

Business
1 answer:
valina [46]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The term demand loan refers to a loan for which the entire balance must be paid immediately at the lender's request.

Answer: D

Explanation:

A demand loan lets the lender shorten the notice period for recalling the loan, thereby using it as a borrowing instrument. Upon immediate notification, the borrower has to repay the entire loan amount along with any interest associated with it. By means of this arrangement, the borrower is enabled towards loan repayment at any time sans any early penalty of repayment. To illustrate, overdraft arrangement is variable from the normal lending approach, having maturity date already determined along with the payable schedule of payments.

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David Wallace was the president, chairman of the board of directors, and majority shareholder of Paper Imports, Inc. Acting as p
Paladinen [302]

Answer:

The answers to the two questions are detailed in the explanation;

Explanation:

1.In this first case, David Wallace may possibly win, since a single creditor as a witness that due to the negligence of the director of the company did not receive his payment is not enough evidence for a lawsuit.

There should be more creditors who are dissatisfied with this situation, and it must also be analyzed what were the real causes that led to the company not having made the corresponding payment to this creditor.

2.In this second situation, the company Dunder Company may possibly win, since the corporation breached a previously established contract, this establishes the basis for a lawsuit in which Papers Import must possibly comply with the provisions of the contract or compensate the damages caused to the Dunder Company.

8 0
3 years ago
The relationship between you and a person selling you a used car falls into which of pinker’s three major relationship types?
ANEK [815]
What are the answer choices?
7 0
3 years ago
Arena Corp. leased equipment from Bolton Corp. and correctly classified the lease as a finance lease. The present value of the m
nadya68 [22]

Answer:

$1,000,000

Explanation:

The Amount to be reported as  lease liability must <em>depict </em>the present value of future cash outflows required to be paid as the entity enjoys its <em>right to use the asset</em>.

Thus, the present value of the minimum lease payments at lease inception was $1,000,000 represents the amount of lease liability.

8 0
3 years ago
RideShare offers short-term rentals of vehicles that are kept in small lots in urban neighborhoods with plenty of potential cust
Free_Kalibri [48]

Answer:

a. Offered load = 1 lot / 4 hours = 6 cars/4 hours = 1.5 cars/hours

b. Demand rate = Total cars per 4 hours/20 minutes time

Demand rate = 6*4 / 20

Demand rate = 24/20

Demand rate = 1.2 cars/hours

Implied utilization = Demand rate / Offered load

Implied utilization = 1.2/1.5

Implied utilization = 0.8

Implied utilization = 80%

c. Capacity of the process = 1 lot / 5 hours

Capacity of the process = 6 / 5

Capacity of the process = 1.2 rentals per hours

d. Probability that all eight cars are rented at the same time

=> (1 - 0.8) * (0.8)^8

=> 0.2 * 0.1678

=> 0.03356

=> 3.36

5 0
2 years ago
Greiner, Inc., a calendar year S Corporation, holds no AEP. During the year, Chad, an individual Greiner shareholder, receives a
Likurg_2 [28]

Answer:

The long term capital gain= $30000-$25000

The long term capital gain= $5000

The basis in stock will be zero after the distribution.

Explanation:

Step 1 of 3

Tax treatment of amount distributed to shareholders:

The amount received as distribution to a shareholder under S Corporation is equal to the cash and fair market value of property distributed. The distribution is considered as tax-free to the limit that it does not exceed shareholder’s basis in the company’s stock. Any amount received in excess of basis will be treated as capital gain.

Step 2 of 3

However, taxation depends whether S Corporation has ever been a C Company or it posses’ accumulated earnings and profits. If it was never a C Corporation or doesn’t holds AEP then distribution equals to basis of share in S Corporation is a tax free gain for shareholder. Gain over and above basis is taxed as capital gains.

Step 3 of 3

In the given problem, C is a shareholder in S Corporation. He receives $30,000 as cash distribution. His basis in stock is $25,000. The distribution up to basis of stock is tax free distribution and above that is charged to capital gains. It is as follows-

Thus, capital gain of  is taxable in hands of C. His basis in S Corporation will reduced to zero as entire distribution is over and above basis of his stock.

3 0
3 years ago
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