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Dominik [7]
3 years ago
15

Which values are with in the range of the piecewise defined function?

Mathematics
2 answers:
guapka [62]3 years ago
8 0
<h2>Answer:</h2>

The range of the piecewise defined function is:

                  y= -6 , y= -4 , y= -3 , y=0

<h2>Step-by-step explanation:</h2>

The piecewise function is defined by:

f(x)  =    2x+2   when  x < -3

              x       when  x = -3

  and  -x-2      when  x > -3

  • when x < -3

Then the graph of the function is a strictly increasing function and is a line with a slope of 2.

The function increases continuously from -∞ to -4

i.e. it takes all the value in the interval (-∞,-4)

There is a open circle at (-3,-4)

  • Also, at x= -3 the value of function is : -3
  • For x > -3

The graph of the function f(x) is strictly decreasing .

Since the graph is a line with slope -1.

Also, there is a open circle at (-3,1)

and the function starts decreasing continuously and will take all the values strictly less than 1.

i.e. the range for x > -3 is:  (-∞,1)

The range of the whole function f(x) is:

                            (-∞,1)

zepelin [54]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

y = -6; -3;  0

Step-by-step explanation:

To quickly solve this problem, we can use a graphing tool or a calculator to plot the equation.

Please see the attached image below, to find more information about the graph

The equation is:

f(x)  = 2x+2  , x < -3

f(x) = x, x = -3

f(x) = - x -2 , x > -3

From the graph, we can see that the values are

y = -6; -3;  0

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a slitter assembly contains 48 blades five blades are selected at random and evaluated each day for sharpness if any dull blade
12345 [234]

Answer:

P(at least 1 dull blade)=0.7068

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps.

This is what it's called dependent event probability, with the added condition that at least 1 out of 5 blades picked is dull, because from your selection of 5, you only need one defective to decide on replacing all.

So if you look at this from another perspective, you have only one event that makes it so you don't change the blades: that 5 out 5 blades picked are sharp. You also know that the probability of changing the blades plus the probability of not changing them is equal to 100%, because that involves all the events possible.

P(at least 1 dull blade out of 5)+Probability(no dull blades out of 5)=1

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-P(no dull blades)

But the event of picking one blade is dependent of the previous picking, meaning there is no chance of picking the same blade twice.

So you have 38/48 on getting a sharp one on your first pick, then 37/47 (since you remove 1 sharp from the possibilities, and 1 from the whole lot), and so on.

Also since are consecutive events, you need to multiply the events.

The probability that the assembly is replaced the first day is:

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-P(no dull blades)

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-(\frac{38}{48}* \frac{37}{47} *\frac{36}{46}*\frac{35}{45}*\frac{34}{44})

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-0.2931

P(at least 1 dull blade)=0.7068

6 0
3 years ago
I need help fast plss
Marysya12 [62]

Answer:

a = 1√6

b = -2

Step-by-step explanation:

Hello,

To solve this trigonometric problem, we need to convert this values into fractions

a).

Sin45° = 1/√2

cos30° = √3/2

Sin60° = √3/2

Sin45° / (cos30° + sin60°) = [(1/√2) ÷ (√3/2 + √3/2)]

(1/√2) ÷ (√3/2 + √3/2)

Add √3/2 + √3/2

1/√2 ÷ 2√3/2

1/√2 × 2/2√3

2/2√(2×3)

2/2√6

1/√6

b

Cos 180° = -1

Sin150° = ½

Tan135° = -1

2cos180° - 2sin150° - tan135°

(2 × -1) - (2×½) - (-1)

-2 - 1 + 1 = -2

3 0
3 years ago
Ur mom lolololololololol
Zina [86]

Answer:

haha

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
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A game has a rectangular board with an area of 44 in2. There is a square hole near the top of the game board in which you must n
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A. 9/44 idk if it is the right anwser but good
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What is (10 1/5 - 15.5) equal to?
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10 1/5 = 10.2
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