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KATRIN_1 [288]
3 years ago
8

Assume that interest rates on 20-year Treasury and 20-year corporate bonds are as follows T-bond = 3.72% AAA = 4.12% A = 4.64% B

B = 5.18% The differences in these rates were probably caused primarily by:
Business
1 answer:
Luba_88 [7]3 years ago
4 0

Answer: Default risk differences.

Explanation:

The Default risk is the inherent risk a lender faces that a borrower will not pay them back the debt they want to borrow. The lender will therefore charger a high return to cater for this risk. The higher the risk, the higher the return charged.

T-bonds have no default risk because they are guaranteed by the US Government which is why it's rate is the lowest. For the other bonds, there is something called a Credit rating. Bonds are usually rated on how risky it will be to lend to the company borrowing with AAA being of the lowest risk. Therefore as one goes up from AAA, the bonds will have higher default risks.

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Bank capital has both benefits and costs for the bank owners. Higher bank capital ________ the likelihood of bankruptcy, but hig
natima [27]

Answer:

The full sentence is the following: Bank capital has both benefits and costs for the bank owners. Higher bank capital <em>reduces </em>the likelihood of bankruptcy, but higher bank capital <em>reduces </em>the return on equity for a given return on assets

6 0
3 years ago
Inez was content with her job at Pieces Packaging until the company added two levels of supervision, lowered bonuses, and decrea
nasty-shy [4]

Answer:

hygiene

Explanation:

<em>A hygiene factor is what characterizes the environment of an individual's work, this includes policies, relationships between co-workers, security, supervision, etc.</em> In the question given Inez's dissatisfaction is due to these factors that were changed by her company.

I hope you find this information useful and interetsing! Good luck!

3 0
3 years ago
9. Current one-year interest rates in Europe is 4 percent, while one-year interest rates in the U.S. is 2 percent. You convert $
Ulleksa [173]

Solution:

Given ,

1 Year interest rates in Europe = 4 %

1 Year interest rates in the U.S. = 2 %

You are translating $200,000 and spending $200,000 in French

Current spot rate of the euro = $1.20

a.   (2%-4%)/(1+4%)=(S - 1.20) / 1.20  

     S= $1.1769 one year Euro rate

b. ( $1 / 1.20 )( 1 + 4% )* 1.12 = $.9707 return of -2.93% (loss)

c. ( $1 / 1.20) ( 1 + 4%)* 1.31 = $1.1353 return of 13.53% (gain)

d . ($1 / 1.20) ( 1 + 4%) *S = $1 (1+2%) ;

        S=$1.1769          

A spot rate of over $1.17697 (this is the same in part A) would be effective.

7 0
3 years ago
A machine with a cost of $75,000 has an estimated residual value of $5,000 and an estimated life of 4 years or 18,000 hours. Wha
allochka39001 [22]

Answer:

The answer is:  $18, 750

Explanation:

The double-declining-balance(DDB) method entails computing depreciation of an asset at an accelerated rate. This method is employed when the asset loses value quickly and is expected to generate more revenue at the earlier stages of its useful life. The depreciation is higher at the beginning and lower close to the end of the asset's useful life. The depreciation is computed as follows:

Depreciation = 2 * straight line depreciation percentage * Book value at the beginning of the period

Machine cost: $75, 000

Residual Value: $5, 000

Estimated Life: 4 years/18, 000 hours

Straight line depreciation percentage : 100/4 = 25%

Depreciation Year 1 on DDB =  2 * 25% * $75, 000

                                               = $37, 500

Depreciation Year 2 on DDB =  2 * 25% * ($75, 000 -$37, 500)

                                               = $18, 750

       

4 0
3 years ago
The term _______________ refers to a firm operating in a perfectly competitive market that must take the prevailing market price
hoa [83]

The term <u>price taker</u> refers to a firm operating in a perfectly competitive market that must take the prevailing market price for its product. Read below about a perfectly competitive market.

<h3>What is a perfectly competitive market?</h3>

In economics, a perfect market is also known as an atomistic market. A effect competition is defined by several idealizing conditions, collectively called perfect competition, or atomistic competition.

Therefore, in such a market the price taker must take the prevailing market price its product.

learn more about price taker: brainly.com/question/15416827

#SPJ1

6 0
2 years ago
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