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algol [13]
3 years ago
12

Tuna Corporation reported pretax book income of $1,000,000. During the current year, the net reserve for warranties increased by

$25,000. In addition, book depreciation exceeded tax depreciation by $100,000. Finally, Tuna subtracted a dividends received deduction of $15,000 in computing its current year taxable income. Book equivalent of taxable income is:
Business
1 answer:
MakcuM [25]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

$985,000

Explanation:

Pretax income = $1,000,000

Increase in net reserve for warranties = $25,000

Exceed in Tax depreciation = $100,000

Subtracted dividends received = $15,000

Therefore,

The Book equivalent taxable income will be calculated as;

= Pretax income - Dividends subtracted

or

The Book equivalent taxable income = $1,000,000 - $15,000

or

The book equivalent taxable income = $985,000

You might be interested in
Temple Square Inc. reported that its retained earnings for 2005 were $490,000. In its 2006 financial statements, it reported $60
V125BC [204]

Answer:

Dividend = $40,000

Explanation:

Given:

Temple Square Inc. reported that its retained earnings for 2005 were $490,000.

In its 2006 financial statements, it reported $60,000 of net income,

It ended 2006 with $510,000 of retained earnings. ( Ending retained earnings )

Question asked:

How much were paid as dividends to shareholders during 2006 ?

Solution:

Here given that Temple Square Inc. reported that its retained earnings for 2005 were $490,000, means this amount will carry forward and will be considered as Beginning retained earnings for 2006.

Now, we have to find, how much dividends were paid to shareholders during 2006.

As we know:

Ending retained earnings = Beginning retained earnings + Net income - Dividend

510,000 = 490,000 + 60,000 - Dividend

510,000 = 550,000 -  Dividend

Subtracting both sides by 550,000

- 40,000 = -  Dividend

Adding both sides by minus ( - )

Dividend = $40,000

Therefore, Temple Square Inc. paid $40,000 to shareholders during 2006.

3 0
3 years ago
Using the following information, prepare a vertical analysis of two years' income statements. Fees Earned is $153,500 for Year 2
pishuonlain [190]

Answer:

Following Statement is true

Operating income has increased as a percentage of revenue.

Vertical Analysis

                                                                        Year 2            Year 1        

Fees Earned                                                  $153,500       $149,700

Operating expenses                                     <u>$122,800</u>       <u>$127,245</u>

Operating Income                                          $30,700        $22,455

Operating Income as percentage of sales       20%               15%

Operating Income as percentage of sales is increased in year 2.

<u>Which of the following statements are true?</u>

Operating income has decreased as a percentage of revenue.

Operating income has increased as a percentage of revenue.

None of these choices are correct.

Operating expenses have increased as a percentage of revenue

7 0
3 years ago
If the required reserve ratio is 10%, actual reserves are $10 million, and currency in circulation is equal to $20 million, M1 w
Pie

Answer:

The correct answer is E

Explanation:

M1, M2 and M3 are the terms which measure the money supply of United States, referred to as money aggregates.

The formula for computing the M1 is as:

M1 = coins as well as currency in circulation + checkable or demand deposit + traveler checks

where

Currency in circulation is $20 million

Demand deposit is as:

= Required reserve × Actual reserve

= 10 ×  $10 million

= $100 million

Putting the values above:

M1 = $20 million + $100 million

M1 = $120 million

8 0
3 years ago
Exercise 5-66 Bad Debt Expense: Percentage of Credit Sales Method Gilmore Electronics had the following data for a recent year:
Stels [109]

Answer:  Debit Bad debt expense $11,264, Credit Allowance for bad debt $11,264; Debit Allowance for bad debt $9,650, Credit Accounts receivable $9,650.

Explanation: Percentage of credit sales method means bad debt expense expressed as a percentage of sales.

The estimated bad debts rate is 2.2%, which translates to 2.2% of $512,000 (credit sales) = $11,264. The firm has to record this, being the estimated bad debts rate, as Debit to bad debt expense and Credit to allowance for bad debt. However, accounts receivable that was deemed uncollectible is $9,650. This amount would be taken out from the buffer in allowance account by debiting allowance for bad debt and crediting accounts receivable.

5 0
3 years ago
Hillside issues $2,600,000 of 5%, 15-year bonds dated January 1, 2015, that pay interest semiannually on June 30 and December 31
Amanda [17]

Answer:

1.- thwe cash payment are the same for each period as the coupon bond rate is fixed:

2,600,000 face value x 5% coupon rate / 2 payment per year = <em>65,000</em>

<em>On the last payment, we are going to calculate 65,000 + face value</em>

<em>2,600,000 + 65,000 = 2,665,000</em>

<em>2.- amortization per period 19,513</em>

<em>3.- interest expense per period 45,487</em>

<em>4.- 45,487 interest expense per period x 30 payment dates =  1,364,610</em>

cash    3,182,390  debit

   bonds payable   2,600,000 credit

   premium on BP     585,390 credit

-- to record issuance --

interest expense 45,487 debit

premium on BP    19,513 debit

    cash                                  65,000 credit

-- entry for each payment date--

Explanation:

proceeds: 3,182,390

face value: 2,600,000

premium:       585,390

amortization per period:

585,390 / 30 payment = 19,513

This will be the amortization on the premium on bonds payable for each payment

3.- as the amortization is fixed under straight-line method the interest expense is also fixed:

65,000 cash proceeds - 19,513 amortization = 45,487 interest expense

6 0
3 years ago
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