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balu736 [363]
3 years ago
6

Temple Square Inc. reported that its retained earnings for 2005 were $490,000. In its 2006 financial statements, it reported $60

,000 of net income, and it ended 2006 with $510,000 of retained earnings. How much were paid as dividends to shareholders during 2006
Business
1 answer:
V125BC [204]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Dividend = $40,000

Explanation:

Given:

Temple Square Inc. reported that its retained earnings for 2005 were $490,000.

In its 2006 financial statements, it reported $60,000 of net income,

It ended 2006 with $510,000 of retained earnings. ( Ending retained earnings )

Question asked:

How much were paid as dividends to shareholders during 2006 ?

Solution:

Here given that Temple Square Inc. reported that its retained earnings for 2005 were $490,000, means this amount will carry forward and will be considered as Beginning retained earnings for 2006.

Now, we have to find, how much dividends were paid to shareholders during 2006.

As we know:

Ending retained earnings = Beginning retained earnings + Net income - Dividend

510,000 = 490,000 + 60,000 - Dividend

510,000 = 550,000 -  Dividend

Subtracting both sides by 550,000

- 40,000 = -  Dividend

Adding both sides by minus ( - )

Dividend = $40,000

Therefore, Temple Square Inc. paid $40,000 to shareholders during 2006.

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Why is the International System of Units (SI) used by scientists all over the world?
borishaifa [10]

Answer:

It allows scientists from disparate regions to use a single standard in communicating scientific data without vocabulary confusion.

Explanation:

8 0
2 years ago
A new truck is purchased on January 1, 20X6. The truck cost $10,000, has a 5-year life, and a $2,000 residual value. Given a Dec
Elena-2011 [213]

Answer:

20X9 depreciation expense is $160

Explanation:

Under the straight-line method, useful life is 5 years, so the asset's annual depreciation will be 20%.

Under the double-declining-balance method the 20% straight line rate is doubled to 40% - multiplied times the Depreciable cost's book value at the beginning of the year.

In 20X6, depreciation expense = 40% x $10,000 = $4,000

At the beginning of the year 20X7, the truck cost's book value is $10,000-$4,000 = $6,000

In 20X7, depreciation expense = 40% x $6,000 = $2,400

In 20X8, depreciation expense = 40% x ($10,000 - $4,000 - $2,400) = $1,440

Accumulated depreciation at December 31 20X8 = $4,000 + $2,400 + $1,440 = $7,840

Book value at December 31 20X8 = $10,000 - $4,000 - $2,400 - $1,440 = $2,160

In 20X9, depreciation expense = $10,000 - $2,000 - $7,840 = $160

The 20X9 depreciation expense was $160 which is less than the actual $864 (40% of $2,160). It was done to keep the residual value as estimated ($2,000)

4 0
3 years ago
Jmes Graham Manufacturing is a small manufacturer that uses machine-hours as its
IgorLugansk [536]

Answer:

Instructions are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Company - Job 62 - Job 63

Direct materials: $60,000 - $4,500 - $7,100

Direct labor: $25,000 - $2,500 - $4,200

overhead costs $72,000

Machine hours: 90,000 - 1,350 - 3,100

During 2019, the actual machine-hours totaled 95,000, and actual overhead costs were $71,000. Job 62 consisting of 1,000 units and Job 63 consisting of 2000 units were completed during the month.

A) To calculate the estimated manufacturing overhead rate we need to use the following formula:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 72,000/90,000

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate=  0.8 per machine-hour

B) Total manufacturing cost= direct material + direct labor + allocated overhead

Job 62:

Total manufacturing cost= 4,500 + 2,500 + 0.8*1,350

Total manufacturing cost= $8,080

Job 63:

Total manufacturing cost= 7,100 + 4,200 + 0.8*3,100

Total manufacturing cost= $13,780

C) Unitary cost= total cost/ number of units

Job 62:

Unitary cost= 8,080/1,000= $8.08

Job 63:

Unitary cost= 13,780/2,000= $6.89

D) First, we need to apply overhead for the company as a whole:

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 0.8*95,000

Allocated MOH= $76,000

Now, we can calculate the over/under applied overhead:

Under/over applied overhead= real overhead - allocated overhead

Under/over applied overhead= 71,000 - 76,000

Overapplied overhead= $5,000

E) Job 62= 14,000

Job 63= 18,000

Gross profit= sales - cost of goods sold

Job 62:

Gross profit= 14,000 - 8,080= $5,920

Job 63:

Gross profit= 18,000 - 13,780= $4,220

7 0
3 years ago
A company's fixed operating costs are $420,000, its variable costs are $3.20 per unit, and the product's sales price is $4.65. W
Hatshy [7]

Answer: The volume of sales that will result in a break-even point is 289,655 units

Explanation: For any organization or company to break-even means its total costs is just the same as its total revenue. This means no profit, and no loss either. Or better still, profit/loss equals zero.

The equation to determine the profit or otherwise of an organization is given as Revenue minus Cost. That is, the sales figure should exceed the cost of production, and the excess would be the profit. If on the other hand the cost of production exceeds the sales figure, then the equation would result in a negative figure which simply means a loss has been recorded.

In the question above, the costs have been given as;

Fixed cost = 420000

Variable cost = 3.2y

Total cost = 420000 + 3.2y

Where y is the number of units produced.

Also the revenue has been given as 4.65y

That is, sales price multiplied by number of units produced/sold

The profit is given as revenue minus cost while the break-even point is given as revenue equals cost, that is;

420000 + 3.2y = 4.65y

Collect like terms and you have;

420000 = 4.65y - 3.2y

420000 = 1.45y

Divide both sides by 1.45

289655.172 = y

y ≈ 289,655

Therefore the sales volume that will result in a break even point is 289,655 units

7 0
3 years ago
Barrington Mills Manufactures denim cloth from two primary raw materials, cotton and dye. Work-in-process includes lapped cotton
8_murik_8 [283]

Answer:

weeks of supply 2,7122857

Explanation:

17,500,000 / 50 weeks = 350,000 COGS per week

<u>current finished inventory: </u>

250  x $  65  =   16,250

 190  x $  80  =   15,200

 310  x $ 105  =<u>  32,550</u>

Total                    64,000

<u><em>cost added:</em></u>

 70,000 materials x $ 2.75

125,000 materials x $ 5.00

   <em>total                    817500</em>

<u><em>WIP:</em></u>

 2,000 rolls     x  $  10.50

 5,000 spools x  $    6.75

    500 rolls     x  $   26.10

  total             $ 67,800

Total inventory: <em>817,500</em> + 67,800 + 64,000 = 949300

<em><u>week of supply:</u></em>

inventory of 949300

and 350,000 goods are consumer per week

week: 2,7122857

3 0
3 years ago
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