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irina [24]
3 years ago
5

While working in the yard, Tina found a beat-up ring. Becca, an eighteen-year old neighbor, came over to visit and liked the rin

g. Tina said, "You can have this old thing if you would like." Becca replied, "I really like it - Maybe it's a real diamond!" Tina laughingly told her that there was a one in a billion chance of that and that Tina was more likely to win the lottery. A few months later Becca ran over to Tina's house and told Tina that the ring was actually a diamond worth thousands of dollars! Becca gave Tina the ring to examine. Tina put it in her pocket and told Becca that she would never have given it to her if she had realized its value and that possession was back where it had always belonged. Tina also told Becca that Becca failed to legally accept the gift because she did not know its true value and also because Tina did not sign any document turning over title. Becca sues. Which of the following describes the type of gift at issue?
a. A gift causa mortis
b. A gift inter vivos
c. A gift inter mortis
d. A gift causa vivos
e. A donative gift
Business
1 answer:
andreev551 [17]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "B": A gift inter vivos.

Explanation:

A gift inter-vivos refers to the transfer of a property from one party to another while the donor is alive. This transfer must be celebrated through a written agreement providing the beneficiary absolute ownership of the property. In such a case, the donor cannot request the property back and gives up any right over it.

The beneficiary must accept the gift for the transfer to be complete and if the property has value, the beneficiary will accept it as well.

<em>The issue between Tina and Becca relies on not having signed any document for the transfer of the diamond ring but they are involved in an inter-vivos gift.</em>

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Answer:

Short-run economics primarily affect price.

Explanation:

When demand decreases for any reason, prices go down in the short term. When demand spikes, prices go up. ... Long-run adjustments occur when sustained increases or decreases in demand cause a business to change its practices and can affect both price and the means of production.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
An author just signed a lucrative contract with a publisher that offers to pay her the amount of $500 at the end of year 9 when
solong [7]

Answer:

Ans. The annuity that will be equivalent to the publisher´s advance would be $26.40 per year, for 9 years at 7% interest rate.

Explanation:

Hi, first, let´s bring that $500 to be paid in 9 years to present value, we need to use the following formula.

PresentValue=\frac{FutureValue}{(1+r)^{n} }

Where: r is our discount rate (7%) and n the periods from now when she will receive that $500 amount. This should look like this.

PresentValue=\frac{500}{(1+0.07)^{9} } =271.97

Ok, so the equivalent amount of money today of those $500 in nine years is $271.97, but the author wants $100 today so the remaining amount has to be used to find the equal annual payments to be made in order to be equivalent to re remaining balance ($171.97). We now need to use the following equation.

Present Value=\frac{A((1+r)^{n}-1 )}{r(1+r)^{n} }

And we solve for "A" like this

171.97=\frac{A((1+0.07)^{9}-1 )}{0.07(1+0.07)^{9} }

171.97=\frac{A(0.838459212 )}{0.128692145}

171.97=A(6.515232249)

A=\frac{171.97}{6.515232249} = 26.40

Therefore, the equivalent amount of money of $500 in 9 years is $100 today and $26.40 every year, at the end of the year, for nine years.

Best of luck.

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3 years ago
A golf course is mostly likely to be closed on what day of the week?
nikklg [1K]
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The day of the week a golf course is mostly likely to be closed on is Monday. =)
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Kwan wants to open a new business in his own country, Singapore. He has decided on a form of licensing that will provide him wit
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A

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A perfect hedge (full coverage) on translation exposure can usually be achieved when which of the following occurs? a. Using a f
attashe74 [19]

Answer:

e). None of the above, because a perfect hedge does not exist

A perfect hedge is nearly impossible

Explanation:

A perfect hedge is a position undertaken by an investor that would eliminate the risk of an existing position, or a position that eliminates all market risk from a portfolio. In order to be a perfect hedge, a position would need to have a 100% inverse correlation to the initial position.

At the time of taking an opposite position in Derivatives Market, Perfect Hedge would mean covering the risk involved in the Cash Market Position completely, i.e. 100%. 2. Imperfect Hedge: When the position in the cash market is not completely hedged or not hedged to 100%, then such a hedge is called Imperfect Hedge.

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