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3 years ago

What is the first step she should take to solve her problem

Business

2 answers:

lina2011 [118]3 years ago

3 0

What is the problem?

Crank3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

The first step she should take to solve her problem is to acknowledge that there is a problem.

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Classify each item as an asset, liability, common stock, revenue, or expense.

kari74 [83]

Answer: The answer is as follows:

Explanation:

Each item is classified as follows:

(a) Issuance of ownership shares - Common Stock

(b) Land purchased - Assets

(d) Bonds payable - Liabilities

(e) Amount earned from selling a product - Revenue

(f) Cost of advertising - Expense

6 0

4 years ago

The current pay period ends on Friday, January 2, yet the company's fiscal year-end is on Wednesday, December 31. If the company

Umnica [9.8K]

Answer:

b. Overstate operating income

Explanation:

According to my research on business financing terms, I can say that based on the information provided within the question the impact of this would be an overstated operating income. This refers to a balance that is documented as having more money than it actually has. This would be the case since the payroll payments have not yet been subtracted.

I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.

4 0

4 years ago

Find the future values of these ordinary annuities. Compounding occurs once a year. Round your answers to the nearest cent. $200

PIT_PIT [208]

Answer:

Normal:

$ 3,509.7470

$ 563.7093

$ 2,000.00

Due:

$3,930.9167

$ 597.5319

$ 2,000.00

Explanation:

We solve using the formula for common annuity and annuity-due on each case:

$C \times \frac{(1+r)^{time} }{rate} = FV\\$

$C \times \frac{(1+r)^{time} }{rate}(1+rate) = FV\\$ (annuity-due)

First:

C 200.00

time 10

rate 0.12

$200 \times \frac{11+0.12)^{10} }{0.12} = FV\\$

$200 \times \frac{11+0.12)^{10} }{0.12}(1+0.12) = FV\\$

Normal: $3,509.7470

Due: $3,930.9167

Second:

$100 \times \frac{(1+0.06)^{5} }{0.06} = FV\\$

$100 \times \frac{(1+0.06)^{5} }{0.06} (1+0.06)= FV\\$

$563.7093

$597.5319

Third:

No interest so no time value of money the future value is the same as the sum of the receipts regardless of time or being paid at the beginning or ending.

1,000 + 1,000 = 2,000

4 0

3 years ago

The employees of Lucid Laboratories are paid every two weeks on Friday for a Monday though Friday work week. Total payroll is $

insens350 [35]

Answer:

Debit Credit

Wages expenses $17,500

Wages receivable $7,500

Wages payable $25,000

Explanation: The end of the current month falls on the second Tuesday of the pay period means, on the 7th day, the end of the month was Tuesday instead of the expected 10th workday and a Friday. In this instance, it means the employees of Lucid Laboratories had only worked for 7 days, then a wages expense of 7/10 days x $25,000 ($17,500) would be recorded with the balance being a wage receivable (since the employees are expected to work for the remaining work days in the next month). The total amount would then be recorded as a payable.

Next month, when it is a first Friday and is time to make payment, the company will record the following entries:

Debit Credit

Wages payable $25,000

Cash $25,000

Wages expense $7,500

Wages receivable $7,500

5 0

3 years ago

CASE STUDY:

IrinaVladis [17]

Answer:

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Explanation:

uuf

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bvbhhrtbbhvvfvhhgfcvbbbvbbbvvvhhhhghhhhhhhhhhdkkdodijgfbfbhhhr

7 0

3 years ago