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12345 [234]
3 years ago
8

The long-run aggregate supply curve would shift left if the amount of labor available

Business
1 answer:
liq [111]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The correct answer is option a.

Explanation:

The long run aggregate supply curve is inelastic and vertical in shape. The reason behind this is that in the long run the output level is not affected by the change in price level. It is rather affected by the quantity of inputs.

A leftward shift in the long run aggregate supply means that the output level is decreasing. This decrease in input in this case is either because of decrease in quantity of labor available,or because of increase in minimum wages the firms are hiring less labor.

So, option a is the correct answer.

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Help please xx<br> Which economic indicator measures economic growth?
coldgirl [10]

Answer: is GDP over time

6 0
3 years ago
Hannah posts her résumé on the websites of several companies. Unfortunately, it is poorly formatted and contains several spellin
dusya [7]

Answer: (D) Physical distraction      

Explanation:

 The physical distraction is one of the communication barrier that basically preventing us from interpreting the given data, ideas or any type of message. The physical distraction is using the various types of physical materials for the distracting the communication.

According to the given question, Hannah is posting her resume on the various types of organization websites but the formatting of the resume is very poor and there is also lots of spelling mistakes.

Therefore, the given scenario is the example of the psychical distraction communication barrier.

7 0
3 years ago
The (annual) expected return and standard deviation of returns for 2 assets are as follows: Asset A Asset B E[r] 10% 20% SD[r] 3
polet [3.4K]

Answer:

Part A

(i) Weight(A) = 0.80 , Weight(B) = 0.20

ER(portfolio) = { ER(A) * Weight(A) } + { ER(B) * Weight(B) }

= { 10 * 0.80 } + { 20 * 0.20 }

= 12%

SD(portfolio) = { SD(A)^2 * W(A)^2 + SD(B)^2 * W(B)^2 + 2*SD(A) * SD(B) * W(A) * W(B) * CORR }^1/2

= { 900*0.64 + 2500*0.04 + 2*30*50*0.8*0.2*0.15}^1/2

= {748}^1/2

= 27.35%

(ii) Weight(A) = 0.50 , Weight(B) = 0.50

ER(portfolio) = { ER(A) * Weight(A) } + { ER(B) * Weight(B) }

= { 10 * 0.50 } + { 20 * 0.50 }

= 15%

SD(portfolio) = { SD(A)^2 * W(A)^2 + SD(B)^2 * W(B)^2 + 2*SD(A) * SD(B) * W(A) * W(B) * CORR }^1/2

= { 900*0.25 + 2500*0.25 + 2*30*50*0.5*0.5*0.15}^1/2

= {917.5}^1/2

= 30.29 %

(iii) Weight(A) = 0.20 , Weight(B) = 0.80

ER(portfolio) = { ER(A) * Weight(A) } + { ER(B) * Weight(B) }

= { 10 * 0.20 } + { 20 * 0.80 }

= 18 %

SD(portfolio) = { SD(A)^2 * W(A)^2 + SD(B)^2 * W(B)^2 + 2*SD(A) * SD(B) * W(A) * W(B) * CORR }^1/2

= { 900*0.04 + 2500*0.64 + 2*30*50*0.2*0.8*0.15}^1/2

= {1708}^1/2

= 41.33 %

Part B

Let Weight(A) be x, and Weight(B) be (1-x)

Solving the ER(portfolio) Equation :  

ER(portfolio) = { ER(A) * Weight(A) } + { ER(B) * Weight(B) }

25 = {10 * x } + {20 * (1 - x) }

25 = 10x + 20 - 20x

25 - 20 = -10x

x = - 0.5

Weight (A) = - 0.5 {its Negative which means Short Selling of Stock A}

Weight (B) = 1 - (-0.5) = 1.5

<u><em>Cross-Proof</em></u>

ER (portfolio) = { ER(A) * Weight(A) } + { ER(B) * Weight(B) }

= { 10 * -0.5 } + { 20 * 1.5 }

= { - 5 } + { 30 }

= 25% . Therefore, our Weights are Correct

Calculation of  SD (portfolio)

SD(portfolio) = { SD(A)^2 * W(A)^2 + SD(B)^2 * W(B)^2 + 2*SD(A) * SD(B) * W(A) * W(B) * CORR }^1/2

= { 900*0.25 + 2500*2.25 + 2*30*50*-0.5*1.5*0.15}^1/2

= { 225 + 5625 - 337.5 }^1/2

= {5512.5}1/2

= 74.2 %

3 0
3 years ago
A financial analyst, assesses the likelihood of various possible future values of a stock price, assigns the following probabili
alina1380 [7]

Answer:

b. 48

Explanation:

The computation of the expected value of the future stock price is as follows;

= Respective future price × respective probabilities

= $40 × 0.5 + $50 × 0.3 + $65 × 0.2

= $20 + $15 + $13

= $48

hence, the  expected value of the future stock price is $48

Therefore the correct option is b.

The same is relevant

8 0
3 years ago
Henkes Corporation bases its predetermined overhead rate on the estimated labor-hours for the upcoming year. At the beginning of
nlexa [21]

Answer:

$17.80 per labor-hour

Explanation:

Predetermined overhead rate = Budgeted Fixed Overheads ÷ Budgeted Activity

                                                  = $961,200 ÷ 54,000 labor-hours

                                                  = $17.80 per labor-hour

Predetermined overhead rate for the recently completed year is $17.80 per labor-hour.

7 0
3 years ago
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