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vladimir1956 [14]
3 years ago
13

Suppose the U.S. dollar is defined by law as being equal to 0.1 ounce of gold. Further suppose the British pound is defined as b

eing equal to 0.05 ounce of gold. The implied exchange rate between the pound and the dollar is
Business
1 answer:
motikmotik3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The exchange rate is $1 = 2 pounds.

Explanation:

The exchange rate is the relative value of the two currencies. In other words, the amount of one currency you can exchange for another currency.  

The US dollar is defined as equal to 0.1 ounces of gold.  

The British Pound is defined as equal to 0.05 ounce of gold.  

The exchange rate between the two countries is

= \frac{value\ of\ US\ dollar}{value\ of\ British\ Pound}

= \frac{0.1}{0.05}

= 2

So the exchange rate is $1 = 2 pounds. This means that $1 can be used to exchange 2 pounds.

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Answer:

The automotive company has run into bribery and corruption, one of the most common ethical challenges businesses faced today as they expand internationally.

Explanation:

As with the given scenario above, this company had three potential countries in which to expand their business of building a factory. These countries asked for an amount of extra kickbacks in exchange for helping the company run their business with ease.

However, in the business world, <em>kickbacks</em> are considered an illegal form of payment (or bribe) that one may gave as a compensation to an individual or organization with a considerable superiority and great influence in exchange for an improper advantageous treatment or service.

Such misappropriation of money violates the state or federal laws, which makes it a form of corruption.

Now, the automotive company from the given scenario had faced a dilemma whether to accept the bribe or not. It's a challenge for them as their decision might positively or negatively affect their business expansion.

7 0
3 years ago
We would like to invest $10,000 into shares of companies XX and YY.
garri49 [273]

Answer:

c. $5,000 into each company

Explanation:

Let X be the actual (random) return from each share of XX, and  Y be the actual return from each share of YY. Computing the returns from each option:

A) Investing $10,000 into XX

Given that variance = (standard deviation)²

Since XX cost $20 per share, only 500 shares can be bought.

Expected value = 500 * E(x) = 500 * 1 = 500

Variance = 500² * Var(x) = 500² * 0.5² = 62500

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Variance = 200² * Var(y) = 200² * 1² = 40000

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Since XX cost $20 per share and YY cost $50 per share, only 250 shares of XX and 100 shares of YY can be bought.

Expected value = 250 * E(x) + 100 * E(y) = 250 * 1 + 100 * 2.5 = 500

Variance = 250² * Var(x) + 100² * Var(y) = 250² * 0.5² + 100² * 1 = 25625

Since all options have the same expected return, but option C has the lowest variance hence it is the least riskiest. So the best option is C

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