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Andreas93 [3]
3 years ago
6

7(2x−a)−3(4x−a)−5(3x+2a)+a=0.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Luden [163]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

0

Step-by-step explanation:

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The Pythagorean theorem, also known as the pythagoras’ theorem, is a fundamental relation in the geometry among the three sides
PtichkaEL [24]

Answer:

it states:  a squared + b squared = c squared ( the hypotenuse)

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
If the frequency of hba homozygotes is 0.1 what is the value of p2
Angelina_Jolie [31]

we know that

p^2 is the the frequency of hba homozygote

we are given

frequency of hba homozygotes is 0.1

so,

p^2 =frequency of hba homozygotes

we can plug values

and we get

p^2=0.1..............Answer

3 0
3 years ago
A species of beetles grows 32% every year. Suppose 100 beetles are released into a field. How many beetles will there be in 10 y
siniylev [52]

Given that a species of beetles grows 32% every year.

So growth rate is given by

r=32%= 0.32


Given that 100 beetles are released into a field.

So that means initial number of beetles P=100


Now we have to find about how many beetles will there be in 10 years.

To find that we need to setup growth formula which is given by

A=P(1+r)^n where A is number of beetles at any year n.

Plug the given values into above formula we get:

A=100(1+0.32)^n

A=100(1.32)^n


now plug n=10 years

A=100(1.32)^{10}=100(16.0597696605)=1605.97696605

Hence answer is approx 1606 beetles will be there after 20 years.


Now we have to find about how many beetles will there be in 20 years.

To find that we plug n=20 years

A=100(1.32)^{20}=100(257.916201549)=25791.6201549

Hence answer is approx 25791 beetles will be there after 20 years.



Now we have to find time for 100000 beetles so plug A=100000

A=100(1.32)^n

100000=100(1.32)^n

1000=(1.32)^n

log(1000)=n*log(1.32)

\frac{\log\left(10000\right)}{\log\left(1.32\right)}=n

33.174666862=n

Hence answer is approx 33 years.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If 1 card is drawn at random from a standard 52-card deck, what is the probability that the card drawn is a king?
Ahat [919]

Answer:

1/13 chance or roughly 7.7% chance.

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 4 Kings in a standard 52-card deck. If one King was to be pulled out, you'd get a probability of 4/52 chance of pulling a king. Simplified, 4/52 is  1/13 chance.

5 0
3 years ago
Help me out asap!!!!
attashe74 [19]

Answer:

anglePUM = 3° , PM = 5, UM = √75

Step-by-step explanation:

anglePUM = 180 - 60 - 90 = 30° (∠sum of Δ)

cos60 = PM/10

PM = 10cos60 = 5

sin60 = UM/10

UM = 10sin60 = √75

6 0
2 years ago
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