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Llana [10]
3 years ago
14

A financial crisis: Suppose the economy starts with GDP at potential, the real interest rate and the marginal product of capital

both equal to 3%, and a stable inflation rate of 2%. A mild financial crisis hits, that raises the risk premium from zero to 2%.
a.Analyze the effect of this shock in an IS/MP diagram.
b.What policy response would you recommend to the Federal Reserve? What would be the effect of this policy response on the economy?
c.How would your answer to part b) change if the financial crisis were very severe, raising the risk premium to 6%?
d.What other policy responses might be considered in this case?

Business
1 answer:
Masteriza [31]3 years ago
3 0

Answer

The answer and procedures of the exercise are attached in the following archives.

Explanation  

You will find the procedures, formulas or necessary explanations in the archive attached below. If you have any question ask and I will aclare your doubts kindly.  

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A demand schedule illustrates the relationship between price and quantity in the format of a(n) ______.
dmitriy555 [2]

A demand schedule illustrates the relationship between price and quantity in the format of a table.

A demand schedule generally consists of two columns. The first column shows the price of a product in ascending and descending order. The second column shows the quantity of the product which is desired or demanded at that price.

In economics, a demand schedule is defined as a table which shows the quantity demanded of a good and service at the different price levels. A demand schedule can also be graphed as a continuous demand curve on the graph  chart where the Y-axis represents the price and the X-axis represents the quantity of the product or service.

To know more about demand schedule here:

brainly.com/question/26073884

#SPJ4

7 0
2 years ago
Cash $ 14,000 Accounts payable $ 42,000 Receivables 70,000 Other current liabilities 28,000 Inventories 210,000 Total CL $ 70,00
Tcecarenko [31]

Answer:

The ROE will increase by 7.69% to 14.29% from 7.5%

Explanation:

Current liabilities:

account payable 42,000

Other  28,000

Total Liabilities: 70,000

IF we want a current ratio of 2.3 then:

70,000 x 2.3 = 161,000 Current assets are needed.

Right now, the companny has 294,000 current assets so it will make inventories decrease by:

294,000 - 161,000 = 133,000

Then with that will purchase common stock:

280,000 - 133,000 = 147,000 common stock will be outstanding

The Return on equity will be:

21,000 / 147,000 = 0.142857 = 14.29%

While currently the ROE is:

21,000/280,000 = 0.075 = 7.5%

There will be an increase for: 14.29 - 7.5 =  6.79%

3 0
3 years ago
Luzadis Company makes furniture using the latest automated technology. The company uses a job-order costing system and applies m
zmey [24]

Answer:

Answer:

1. Overhead over applied= $521,000

2. Factory Overhead   Dr.     $ 521,000

Cost Of Goods Sold Cr.    $ 521,000

3. Work in Process,  (ratio)   $521,000 *    7%=  36,470

Finished Goods,              $521,000   *     19%=  98,990

Cost of Goods Sold       $521,000    *    74%=  385,540

Total                        $521,000     100%

4. Difference between the two CGS= $ 136,060

Explanation:

Predetermined Overhead  Costs $1,152,000

Estimated activity level of 72,000 machine-hours

Overhead rate= $ 1152,000/ 72,000= $ 16 per hour

Manufacturing overhead cost $551,000

Actual hours = 67,000

Overhead applied to WIP = 67,000 * 16= $ 1072,000

Overhead over applied= $ 1072,000 - $551000= $521,000

Part 2:

Factory Overhead   Dr.     $ 521,000

Cost Of Goods Sold Cr.    $ 521,000

The Cost of Goods Sold is credited and Factory overhead is debited.

Part 3:

Suppose the overhead is applied in the following ratio

Work in Process,  (ratio)   $37,520          7%   (37520/536,00*100%)

Finished Goods,              $101,840         19%      (101840/536,00*100%)

Cost of Goods Sold       $396, 640        74%     (396,640/536,00*100%)

Total                        $536,000     100%

The  overhead over applied  would be allocated in the following way applying the same ratio as determined above.

Work in Process,  (ratio)   $521,000 *    7%=  36,470

Finished Goods,              $521,000   *     19%=  98,990

Cost of Goods Sold       $521,000    *    74%=  385,540

Total                        $521,000     100%

Part 4:

Cost of Goods Sold ( overhead applied of $396, 640) $1,472,600

Less    Overhead   overapplied      $ 521,000

CGS = $ 951,000

Cost of Goods Sold (overhead applied to WIP & FG) $1,472,600

Less   Overapplied Overhead $ 385,540

CGS=  $ 1087,060

Difference between the two CGS = $ 1087,060- $ 951,000= $ 136,060

5 0
3 years ago
Clay, "a production manager, believes that some of his workers are unhappy with their job, so they are not working as hard as th
ratelena [41]

Answer:

The answer is: Develop a positive work culture

Explanation:

Ever since the Hawthorne experiments by Elton Mayo way back in the 1920´s it has been proved over and over again that happy and positive employees are more efficient, have lower staff turnover, are more creative, etc.. Simply they are better workers.

It is not always easy to achieve the goal of a happy working environment and there is no formula for doing so. Management knows the benefits (better recruitment, worker loyalty, higher job satisfaction, more job collaboration, better morale, less stress, better work performance, etc) but not everyone can make it happen.

Some ideas about how to make a positive work culture include:

  • Let every employee know the vision of the company and the values the company stands for.
  • Hire the right people.
  • Make employees feel part of the unique story of the organization.
  • The company must practice its values.
  • Create a work environment were employees can connect with each other not only for working reasons but also on informal levels.
  • And many more that can be unique for every company (i.e. Google is famous for offering its employee lots of perks)
3 0
3 years ago
Hedge funds are low risk because they are market-neutral. low risk if they buy Treasury bonds. low risk because they hedge their
erastovalidia [21]

Answer:

Hedge funds are: high risk, even though they may be market-neutral.

6 0
4 years ago
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