The probability of that occurring is 0%. There are 6 sides in a typical dice, which means the probability of rolling a 2 is 1/6th. (1/6)^1000 will give you the probability of rolling a 2 exactly 1000 times. (1/6)^1000 equates to 0%.
Answer:
no
Step-by-step explanation:
because no
Answer:
<h2>10 weeks </h2>
Step-by-step explanation:
Step one:
given data
Ryan
number of baseball cards=150
number collected per week= 10
let the number of weeks be x
and the total be y
y=10x+150-----------------1
Sarah
number of baseball cards=200
number collected per week= 5
let the number of weeks be x
and the total be y
y=5x+200------------2
Step two:
Required
the number of weeks where both total will be the same
10x+150=5x+200
10x-5x=200-150
5x=50
divide both sides by 5
x=50/5
x=10 weeks
Given:
Consider the given function:

To prove:

Solution:
We have,

Substituting
, we get




Substituting
, we get




Substituting
, we get




Using the algebraic formula, we get
![[\because b^2-a^2=(b-a)(b+a)]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5B%5Cbecause%20b%5E2-a%5E2%3D%28b-a%29%28b%2Ba%29%5D)

[Commutative property of addition]
Now,




Hence proved.