Answer:
A) true
Explanation:
Manufacturing involves converting raw materials into useful finished product. Manufacturers engage different production processes in creation of goods/ services, and the choice of process to use is dependent on the kind of products/ goods that were to be produced. In choosing process or production methods desires of the market as well as available resources and volumes need to be put into consideration. For instance, in steel manufacturing, the process is one that requires a continuous process, therefore, CONTINUOUS PROCESS is used. A production plant involving working together of both workers and robot works together in assembling if automobiles requires a "ASSEMBLY PROCESS"
Answer:
$32,300
Explanation:
Begining equity = Begining asset - Begining liabilities
= $231,000 - $96,500 = $134,500
Ending equity = Ending asset - Ending liabilities
= $262,000 - $78,400 = $183,600
We will find the net income for the year using the below formula:
Ending equity = Begining equity + Stock issuance + Net income - Dividend paid, or:
$183,600 = $134,500 + 23,500 + Net income - $6,700.
Solve the above equation we get Net income = $32,300
Answer:
Investment on Gold Company 305,565
Goodwill 20,360
Carrying value 325,925
Explanation:
<em>Because our current control, we have to use the equity valuation</em>
<em>the net income increased our investment and the cash dividends decreased.</em>
beginning book value 275,400
+ 30% net income
30% of 125,600 = 37,680
-30% cash dividends
30% of 25,050 = (7,515)
ending I<u>nvestment on Gold Company 305,565</u>
<u />
<em>The goodwill will be amortized over 5 years using straight-line method</em>
<u>Goodwill</u>
300,850 - 275,400 = 25,450
life 5 years
25,450/5 = 5,090
amortization (5,090)
<u>Total 20,360</u>
The main disadvantage of the valuation method is that the terminal value tends to dominate the total value in many cases.
In a free cash flow valuation, the intrinsic value equals present value of its free cash flow and thus, the net cash flow is left over for distribution to stockholders and debt-holders in each period.
- So, the disadvantage of the free cash flow valuation method is that the terminal value tends to dominate the total value in many cases.
Hence, the Option B is correct.
Read more about this here
<em>brainly.com/question/22593826</em>
Answer:
7.76%
Explanation:
In this question, we use the PMT formula which is shown in the spreadsheet.
The NPER represents the time period.
Given that,
Present value = $969
Future value = $1,000
Rate of interest = 8.1%
NPER = 17 years
The formula is shown below:
= PMT(Rate;NPER;-PV;FV;type)
The present value come in negative
So, after solving this, The PMT would be $77.58
The coupon rate is shown below:
= (Coupon payment ÷ par value) × 100
= ($77.58 ÷ $1,000) × 100
= 7.76%
