Why does the multiplication property of equality not allow us to divide both sides of an equation by zero?
1 answer:
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The solution to the above factorization problem is given as f′(x)=4x³−3x²−10x−1. See steps below.
<h3>What are the steps to the above answer?</h3>Step 1 - Take the derivative of both sides
f′(x)=d/dx(x^4−x^3−5x^2−x−6)
Step 2 - Use differentiation rule d/dx(f(x)±g(x))=d/dx(f(x))±d/dx(g(x))
f′(x)=d/dx(x4)−d/dx(x^3)−d/dx(5x^2)−d/dx(x)−d/dx(6)
f′(x)=4x^3−d/dx(x3)−d/dx(5x^2)−d/dx(x)−d/dx(6)
f′(x)=4x^3−3x2−d/dx(5x^2)−d/dx(x)−d/dx(6)
f′(x)=4x^3−3x^2−10x−d/dx(x)−d/dx(6)
f′(x)=4x^3−3x^2−10x−1−dxd(6)
f′(x)=4x^3−3x^2−10x−1−0
Learn more about factorization:
brainly.com/question/25829061
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