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Aloiza [94]
3 years ago
6

Suppose that Ford issues a coupon bonds at a price of $1,000, which is the same as the bond's par value. Assume the bond has a c

oupon rate of 4.5%, pays the coupon once per year, and has a maturity of 20 years. If an investor purchased this bond at the price of $1,000, for each year except the last year, the investor would receive a payment of 45. (Round your answers to the nearest dollar) When the bond matures, t investor would receive a final payment of $1045. (Round your answers to the nearest dollar.) Now suppose the price of the bond changes to $1, 060. Assuming an investor purchased the bond at a price of $1, 060, the investor would receive a current yield equal to ()
Business
1 answer:
uysha [10]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

YTM approximated 4.08%

Explanation:

If the price of the bond changes to 1,060

we will need to calcualte the YTM

we could do it with an approxmation method like this:

YTM = \frac{C + \frac{F-P}{n }}{\frac{F+P}{2}}

Cuopon payment =1,000 x 4.5% = 45

Face value       = 1,000

Purchase value= 1,060

n= 20 years

quotient 4.0776699%

It will yield approximately 4.08%

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Answer:

My savings

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income = $2,000

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1. Which advantage is not enjoyed by the owner of a sole proprietorship?
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The correct answer to 1 is the ability to easily raise financial capital.

A sole proprietor is limited to the cash that they personally have, so this is a disadvantage when they need additional capital for the business.

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Read 2 more answers
Two incinerators are being considered by a waste management company. Design A has an initial cost of $2,500,000, has annual oper
Vika [28.1K]

Answer:

<u>Desing A:   </u>23,024,370‬

<u>Desing B:   </u>22,520,274.6

It should purchase desing B as the capitalized cost is lower.

Explanation:

We consider annuity for the overhauls and then, perpetuity to consider this incinerators will last indefinitely.

maintenance cost: 800,000 / 0.05 = 16,000,000

<u>Overhaul: </u>

The company will need to fund 1,250,000 every 5 years. We need to determinate the annuity to obtain this future value:

FV \div \frac{(1+r)^{time} -1}{rate} = C\\

PV 1,250,000

time 5

rate 0.05

1250000 \div \frac{(1+0.05)^{5} -1}{0.05} = C\\

C  $  $ 226,218.498

<u>Then at perpetuity:</u>

$ 226,218.498  / 0.05 = 4,524,370

<u>Desing A capitalized cost:</u>

2,500,000 + 16,000,000 + 4,524,370 = 23,024,370‬

We do the same for Desing B:

investment: 5,750,000

maintenance: 600,000 / 0.05 = 12,000,000

overhaul:

3000000 \div \frac{1-(1+0.05)^{-10} }{0.05} = C\\

C  $ 238,513.725

238,513.73/0.05 =  4,770,274.6

Capitalized cost: 5,750,000 + 12,000,000 + 4,770,274.6 = 22,520,274.6‬

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