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nikdorinn [45]
3 years ago
8

Vegas Company is considering eliminating an unprofitable segment. The segment’s fixed costs are avoidable and are less than its

contribution margin. Which of the following is a true consequence of eliminating this unprofitable segment?A.Overall net income will decrease.B.Overall fixed costs will increase.C.Overall contribution margin will increase.D.Overall variable costs will increase.
Business
2 answers:
Advocard [28]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

A. Overall net income will decrease.

Explanation:

When the contribution margin of an unprofitable segment is less than the fixed costs, the net income of the company will increase if it eliminates that unprofitable segment.

However, it is not advisable to eliminate an unprofitable segment if its contribution margin is greater than the fixed costs, because it will be contributing to the recovery of the fixed costs it is not eliminated. But if it is eliminated, the overall net profit of the company will decrease due to the loss of contribution to the recovery of the fixed costs from the eliminated segment.

Therefore, the true consequence of eliminating the unprofitable segment by Vegas Company is that its overall net income will decrease.

Paraphin [41]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Option A,overall net income will decrease

Explanation:

The rule is that an unprofitable segment should be eliminated if its contribution is negative or zero.

In other words, a good justification for closing up an unprofitable segment of a business is when its contribution(sales-variable costs) is equal to or less than the fixed costs

If Vegas Company closes the unprofitable segment the overall net income will decrease because the segment's contributes to recovery of fixed costs since its contribution margin is more than its fixed costs,hence closing it brings about increased costs and reduced net income

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In companies that do not have "no lay-off" policies, the total direct labor cost for a budget period is computed by multiplying
kari74 [83]

Answer:

a. True

Explanation:

The formula to compute the total direct labor budget for the budget time period is shown below;

Total direct labor budget = Total direct labor hours required × direct labor wage rate

Through multiplying the direct labor hours required with the direct labor wage rate we can get the total direct labor budget and the same is to be considered

Hence, the correct option is a. True

4 0
3 years ago
Baskets Inc. gathered the following actual results for the current month: Actual amounts: ​ Units produced 6000​ Direct material
ss7ja [257]

Answer:

price variance  $(22,800.00) UNFAVORABLE

Explanation:

(standard\:cost-actual\:cost) \times actual \: quantity= DM \: price \: variance

std cost                           $6.00

actual cost                    $9.00

quantity                       7,600

difference                   $(3.00)

price variance  $(22,800.00)

We calculate the actual cost by dividing total cost by the lbs purchased:

68,400/7,600 = 9

Because the diference is negative, the variance is unfavorable.

Each pound cost more than it was planned.

8 0
3 years ago
Which of the following countries is on the best terms with North Korea and has demonstrated this in their treatment of 2010 even
AysviL [449]
Hi, 

The answer is China

Over time, China has demonstrated their support to North Korea. In 2010 North Korea attacked with artillery the island of Yeonpyeong, where there were civilians, and South Korea responded by attacking North Korea's artillery. 

Tensions scaled, and although most world governments condemned the attack, China's Ministry of Foreign Affairs didn't explicitly condemn the bombarding by North Korea and only made a call to peace in the Korean Peninsula. 
4 0
3 years ago
Forward Co. discarded a machine that cost $5,000 and was fully depreciated. The entry to record this transaction would include a
madreJ [45]

Based on the fact that Forward Co. discarded a machine with cost $5,000, the entry to record this transaction in the books would include a credit to Machinery.

<h3>How do you dispose of fixed assets?</h3>

When fixed assets are to be disposed of, the accumulated depreciation upt to that point is looked at to calculate the net book value.

This would then show the company if they made a profit or a loss when they sold the fixed asset with a profit being made when the selling price is higher than the net book value.

Regardless of the price the fixed asset is sold at, the company would record a credit to the fixed asset (machinery) account to show that the fixed asset account is decreasing.

In conclusion, there will be a credit to machinery.

Find out more on disposing fixed assets at brainly.com/question/14542603

#SPJ1

6 0
2 years ago
Federal Semiconductors issued 11% bonds, dated January 1, with a face amount of $830 million on January 1, 2021. The bonds sold
Semmy [17]

Answer:

discount on bonds payable 18,383,020.48 debit

other comprehensive income 18,383,020.48 credit

--to adjust Bonds at 12/31/2021 market value --

other comprehensive income  4.739.000‬ debit

    discount on bonds payable   4.739.000‬ credit

--to adjust Bonds at 12/31/2022 market value --

Explanation:

We solve for the book value at year-end using effective rate

<u>First year:</u>

<u>First payment</u>

830,000,000 x 5.5% = 45,650,000

767,557,868  x 6.0% = 46,053,472.08

Amortization              403,472.08

<u>Second Payment</u>

830,000,000 x 5.5% =                         45,650,000

(767,557,868 + 403,472.08)  x 6.0% = 46,077,680.4

Amortization               427680.4

Carrying value at year-end

767,557,868 + 403,472.08 + 427,680.40 = 768,389,020.48

We need to recognize a deferred gain for the difference between these and the 750,000,000 market value at December 31th

which is $ 18,383,020.48 as these as not been realized it will be part of other comprehensive income

We will increase the discount to adjust the bonds payable account net balance.

<u>Second year:</u>

We repeat the process

<em>First Payment:</em>

830,000,000 x 5.5% = 45,650,000

Interest expense 750,000,000 x 6% = 45,000,000

Amortization  650000

Carrying value 750,000,000 + 650,000 = 750,650,000

<em>Second Payment:</em>

830,000,000 x 5.5% = 45,650,000

750,650,000 x 6% = 45,039,000

Amortization 611000

Carrying Value 750,650,000 + 611,000 = 751,261,000

Wer now compare this with the 756,000,000

as now the debt of the company has increased we are going to decrease the discounttand recognize a deferred loss through other comprehensive income as it wasn't realized

756,000,000 - 751,261,000 = 4.739.000‬

7 0
3 years ago
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