All categories

3 years ago

Six friends want to play enough games of chess to be sure every one plays everyone else. How many games will they have to play

Mathematics

1 answer:

antiseptic1488 [7]3 years ago

4 0

Answer: 15 games

Step-by-step explanation:

You might be interested in

A circular rug has an area of 32.15 <img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=ft%5E%7B2%7D" id="TexFormula1" title="ft^{2}" alt="ft^{2}"

Oxana [17]

Diameter is twice the radius. A=πr^2.

First, solve for r:

32.15=πr^2

*Divide both sides by π*

10.2337=r^2

*Take the square root of both sides*

3.199=r

Multiply the radius by 2:

3.199*2=6.398

D. 6.4 feet

Hope this helps!!

5 0

3 years ago

Which is the area of a circle with diameter 6.4 inches? use 3.14

Elodia [21]

The correct answer is 32.15 inches

3 0

3 years ago

An equilateral triangle is similar to a scalene triangle. True or False

san4es73 [151]

Answer:

False.

Step-by-step explanation:

All the sides of an equilateral triangle are equal.

None of the sides of a scalene triangle are equal to each other.

Therefore, an equilateral triangle is not similar to a scalene triangle.

8 0

2 years ago

Rachel deposits $100 in a bank account and she gets 8% simple interest on it. Which linear model gives the return on her investm

Mandarinka [93]

The answer would be B because the 100 stays in there and you are adding 8% per year. Hope this helps.

3 0

3 years ago

Software filters rely heavily on ""blacklists"" (lists of known ""phishing"" URLs) to detect fraudulent e-mails. But such filter

crimeas [40]

Answer:

a) $X \sim Binom(n=16, p=0.2)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

The expected value is given by this formula:

$E(X) = np=16*0.2=3.2$

b) $P(X=0)=(16C0)(0.2)^{0} (1-0.2)^{16-0}=0.02815$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Part a

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=16, p=0.2)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

The expected value is given by this formula:

$E(X) = np=16*0.2=3.2$

Part b

For this case we want this probability:

$P(X=0)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

And using this function we got:

$P(X=0)=(16C0)(0.2)^{0} (1-0.2)^{16-0}=0.02815$

6 0

2 years ago