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mina [271]
3 years ago
11

What is x divided by x-1 - 1 divided by 2-2x expessed as a single fraction ?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Kay [80]3 years ago
8 0
To simplify into 1 fraction, remember, we must make the denominator the same
x/ (x-1 )  - 1/ (2-2x)
= -x/ -(1-x) - 1/(2-2x)    [see the similarity now? ]  [whatever we multiply for the denominator, as long as we multiply to the numerator, it will be ok]
= -2x / -(2-2x)    + 1/-(2-2x)
= (-2x+1 )/ -(2-2x)
=(2x-1)/(2-2x)
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Please I need help ASAP
Allisa [31]

Answer:

it's 4.5

Step-by-step explanation:

you have to find the difference between each number and the mean. then you find the mean of that sum

4 0
3 years ago
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Five teachers and five students want to but ice cream from the cafeteria. The cafeteria sells chocolate,strawberry,cotton candy,
matrenka [14]

Answer:

13.75

Step-by-step explanation:

First you know there are 5 students and 5 teachers, for each student it costs 6.25 and for every teacher it cost 1.50. So 5 teachers x 1.50= 7.5. 5 students x 1.25 =6.25. 7.5 +6.25= 13.75

8 0
3 years ago
Rosa wants 2 pairs of jeans that cost $32 each .she has a coupon for $10 off the price of one pair .what price will rosa pay for
Phoenix [80]

Answer:

$54

Step-by-step explanation:

An expression for the total cost would be:

1($32) + ($32-$10) = $32 + $22 = $54

8 0
3 years ago
What is the probability of rolling a four then a three
spayn [35]

Answer:

\frac{1}{36}

Step-by-step explanation:

Total possibilities when we a roll a die at a time are 6

given we should have four for first time and then three

let us assume we rolled the dice we may get 1,2,3,4,5,6(any of these) the probability to get 4 is

PROBABILITY=\frac{\textrm{FAVOURABLE CHANCES}}{\textrm{TOTAL CHANCES}}

Favourable chances=1

Total chances=6

Probability=\frac{1}{6}

the prabability to get 4 in first roll is \frac{1}{6}.

let us assume we rolled the dice for second time again we may get 1,2,3,4,5,6(any of these) the probability to get 3 is

Favourable chances=1

total chances=6

probability=\frac{1}{6}

the probability to get 3 in second roll irrespective of first one is \frac{1}{6}

the probability to get 4 in first time and then 3 is

The probability to occur both events at a time is multiplication of individual probabilities

So,

probablility to get 4 in first roll=\frac{1}{6}

probability to get 3 in second roll=\frac{1}{6}

probability to occur both at a same time is =\frac{1}{6} \times\frac{1}{6}=\frac{1}{36}

6 0
2 years ago
Find the equation of the line with a slope of 12 that passes through the point (3, -1)
Anon25 [30]

Answer:

y = 12x - 37

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation of a line in slope- intercept form is

y = mx + c ( m is the slope and c the y- intercept )

here m = 12, thus

y = 12x + c ← is the partial equation

To find c substitute (3, - 1) into the partial equation

- 1 = 36 + c ⇒ c = - 1 - 36 = - 37

y = 12x - 37 ← is the equation of the line

3 0
3 years ago
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