Answer:
$1.446 million
Explanation:
Depletion cost per unit = (Total ore extracted in the first year / total amount of ore ) x cost of mine
(7.23 million/ 37.93 million ) x $7.5860 million = $1.446 million
I hope my answer helps you
Answer:
cost-benefit analysis
Explanation:
such analysis is based on the cost and benefits of attending a collage.
Explanation:
Over the years veterinary professionals have played significant and contributory roles in animal and human health and welfare, biomedical research, food quality, food safety, food security, ecology, ethology, epidemiology, microbiology, parasitology, pathology, physiology, psychology, radiology, research and development of pharmaceuticals, remedies, vaccines, and toxicology; also as educators, trainers, and policymakers, and also interlinked with wildlife conservation efforts and the protection of the environment and biodiversity. As challenges have risen, veterinarians have found ways to adapt given that their knowledge and training makes them multifunctional professionals. This aids societies so that its animals stay healthy and productive. It is not surprising that becoming a veterinarian is a highly popular career choice.
Answer and Explanation:
a. The computation of operating profit is shown below:-
Profit per unit = Purchase price from outside per unit + variable cost of production internally
= $15 - $7
= $8
Total increment in operating profit = Profit per unit × Total number of units
= $8 × 24,000
= $192,000
b. Minimum transfer price = Variable cost = $7 (because polk has overcapacity and there is no change in fixed cost and polk minimum has to recover its variable production cost)
c. Maximum transfer price = purchase cost from outside supplier = $15 (because if the internal transfer piece is more than $15 Bishop will lose so he prefers to buy from outside and the company as a whole will lose $192,000 in incremental operating profit
the demand curve for the bonds shifts to the left and the interest rate rises
when the market is volatile , then the risk associated with the bond is very high . there is an inverse relation ship between risk and demand. when the risk is high, the demand for the bond decrease and the demand curve shifts to the left. also there is an inverse relation ship between the demand and interest rate. hence, when the demand decrease , the interest rate on the bond rises
the explanation for correct option because of an inverse relationship between the risk demand and demand interest rate, the interest rate cant fall when the demand curve shift to the left and when the risk is high , the demand curve shifts to the left only, not to the right .
Learn more about demand curve here.
brainly.com/question/28203108
#SPJ4