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3241004551 [841]
3 years ago
15

Solve for e. Give an exact answer. 0.75(8+e)=2-1.25e

Mathematics
2 answers:
ANEK [815]3 years ago
4 0
Then I got 2e=-4
e=-2

-Dominant- [34]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

e = -2

Step-by-step explanation:

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user100 [1]

Answer:

This should help

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
2 years ago
What is the derivative of 4pi and why?
Diano4ka-milaya [45]
<span>Answer: The derivative of 4pi (4π) is simply zero. In Calculus, the process of differentiation is taking the limit of the given as the change with respect to a certain variable approaches zero. The derivative indicates the slope of a given function, the rate of change with respect to small increments to a reference axis or variable. As our given, 4π, is simply a constant, it does not change with respect to any infinitesimal increment to any variable; thus its derivative is zero.</span>
7 0
3 years ago
50 POINTS!!!!!!!
stira [4]

Answer:

For this transition of equations, the graph of g(x) will be translated left 2 units with respect to the graph of f(x), so your answer choice will be A.

Step-by-step explanation:

In this equation, g(x) is changed by adding 2 and closing part of the equation in parenthases, this results in the translation 2 units left, which can be proven by a graph and my answer.

3 0
3 years ago
<img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Crm%20%5Cint_%7B0%7D%5E%7B%20%20%5Cpi%20%7D%20%5Ccos%28%20%5Ccot%28x%29%20%20%20%20-%20%2
Nikolay [14]

Replace x with π/2 - x to get the equivalent integral

\displaystyle \int_{-\frac\pi2}^{\frac\pi2} \cos(\cot(x) - \tan(x)) \, dx

but the integrand is even, so this is really just

\displaystyle 2 \int_0^{\frac\pi2} \cos(\cot(x) - \tan(x)) \, dx

Substitute x = 1/2 arccot(u/2), which transforms the integral to

\displaystyle 2 \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\cos(u)}{u^2+4} \, du

There are lots of ways to compute this. What I did was to consider the complex contour integral

\displaystyle \int_\gamma \frac{e^{iz}}{z^2+4} \, dz

where γ is a semicircle in the complex plane with its diameter joining (-R, 0) and (R, 0) on the real axis. A bound for the integral over the arc of the circle is estimated to be

\displaystyle \left|\int_{z=Re^{i0}}^{z=Re^{i\pi}} f(z) \, dz\right| \le \frac{\pi R}{|R^2-4|}

which vanishes as R goes to ∞. Then by the residue theorem, we have in the limit

\displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\cos(x)}{x^2+4} \, dx = 2\pi i {} \mathrm{Res}\left(\frac{e^{iz}}{z^2+4},z=2i\right) = \frac\pi{2e^2}

and it follows that

\displaystyle \int_0^\pi \cos(\cot(x)-\tan(x)) \, dx = \boxed{\frac\pi{e^2}}

7 0
2 years ago
....Help Please.......
astra-53 [7]

Answer:

Vertex: (-2,1)

X - intercepts: There are no x intercepts

Y - intercept: (0,2)

Step-by-step explanation:

Just look at the graph, it says it all.

7 0
3 years ago
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