Answer: 1
Step-by-step explanation:
Experimental probability is the actual result you get from an experement.
Theoretical probability is the change that you will get that result.
(for example: flipping a coin, the Theoretical probability is 50/50 but after testing the Experimental probability might be 47/53)
therefore,
1/6 is the Theoretical probability because you are using a six-sided number cube.
for the Theoretical probability and the Experimental probability to be the same, the fraction of the roll must equal 1/6.
1/6 equals 8/48.
therefore, since the numbers 1 and 6 were both rolled 8 times out of 48 they are consistant with the Theoretical probability of 1/6.
6 is not one of the answer choices listed so 1 must be your answer.
Answer:
it depend
Step-by-step explanation:
i can edit this answer but-
do they mean that both objects together costs that much or does that mean that pens and pencils cost the same?
5(4x-3)^2 - 3
5(16x^2 - 2(3)(4x) + 9) -3
5(16x^2 - 24x + 9) -3
80x^2 - 120x + 45 - 3
80x^2 - 120x + 42
80(0)^2 - 120(0) + 42
42
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
we know that
The compound interest formula is equal to
where
A is the Final Investment Value
P is the Principal amount of money to be invested
r is the rate of interest in decimal
t is Number of Time Periods
n is the number of times interest is compounded per year
in this problem we have
substitute in the formula above
Find the interest
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