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3 years ago

I bet you want Brainlest!! Click HERE!!! Please help me!!! BRaNiElsT!!!!! Click!!!

Mathematics

2 answers:

soldi70 [24.7K]3 years ago

4 0

What is the question?

Ilia_Sergeevich [38]3 years ago

3 0

What? What's your question?

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There is a closed carton of eggs in Mai's refrigerator. The carton contains e eggs and it can hold 12 eggs. What are some possib

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Answer:

1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11

Step-by-step explanation:

plato

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3 years ago

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−3x + 3 < 6 can someone help

Tomtit [17]

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X > -1

Step-by-step explanation:

Isolate the variable by dividing each side by factors that don't contain the variable.

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Find the value of x to the nearest whole number. Tan x(degree) = 1.732

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3 years ago

What do you add to 17/4 to make 5?

marusya05 [52]

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2 years ago

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A bank in the Bay area is considering a training program for its staff. The probability that a new training program will increas

WITCHER [35]

Answer:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)') = 1-P(A \cap B)= 1-0.32=0.68$

See explanation below.

Step-by-step explanation:

For this case we define first some notation:

A= A new training program will increase customer satisfaction ratings

B= The training program can be kept within the original budget allocation

And for these two events we have defined the following probabilities

$P(A) = 0.8, P(B) = 0.2$

We are assuming that the two events are independent so then we have the following propert:

$P(A \cap B ) = P(A) * P(B)$

And we want to find the probability that the cost of the training program is not kept within budget or the training program will not increase the customer ratings so then if we use symbols we want to find:

$P(B' \cup A')$

And using the De Morgan laws we know that:

$(A \cap B)' = A' \cup B'$

So then we can write the probability like this:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)')$

And using the complement rule we can do this:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)')= 1-P(A \cap B)$

Since A and B are independent we have:

$P(A \cap B )=P(A)*P(B) =(0.8*0.4) =0.32$

And then our final answer would be:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)') = 1-P(A \cap B)= 1-0.32=0.68$

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3 years ago