Answer:
the interest rate is missing, so I looked for similar questions and found that the semiannual interest rate is 3%.
first of all, we must determine the amount of money that we need to have in our account in order to be able to withdraw $25,000 in 10 years.
You will start making your semiannual deposits today and they will end in exactly 2 years, so we need to find out the present value of the $25,000 in two years:
PV = $25,000 / (1 + 3%)¹⁶ = $15,579.17
that is now the future value of our annuity due:
FV = semiannual deposit x FV annuity due factor (3%, 5 periods)
$15,579.17 = semiannual deposit x 5.46841
semiannual deposit = $15,579.17 / 5.46841 = $2,848.94
Answer:
$5.97
Explanation:
In order to determine the capital gain of the bond in a year's time,it is first first of all important to calculate the yield to maturity on the bond which is arrived at by applying the rate formula in excel as follows:
=rate(nper,pmt,-pv,fv)
nper is the number of coupon interest the bond would pay over its entire life of 15 years which is 15
pmt is the annual interest,7.9%*$1000=$79
pv is the current market price of the bond which is $790
fv is the value of $1000
=rate(15,79,-790,1000)=10.79%
Afterwards,the price of the bond in one year' time can then be calculated:
=-pv(rate,nper,pmt,fv)
The variables in the formula are as above except for nper which would reduce by 1 in a year's time
=-pv(10.79%,14,79,1000)
pv=$ 795.97
Hence the capital gain=price now-price one year ago/price one year ago
price now is $795.97
price one year ago was $790
Capital gain=$795.97-$790=$5.97
Capital gain %= ($795.97-$790)/$790=0.76%
Answer:
$8.20 per pound
Explanation:
The computation of the actual price per pound is shown below:
Material price variance = (Standard price per pound - Actual price per pound) × Actual quantity purchased
-$7,000 = ($8.00 - Actual price per pound) × 35,000
$8.00 - Actual price per pound = -$7,000 ÷ 35,000
Actual price per pound = $8.20 per pound
Hence, the actual price per pound is $8.20 per pound
We simply applied the above formula so that the correct value could come
And, the same is to be considered
Answer:
d. Both a and b above are correct.
Explanation:
In the case when the company unadjusted trial balance reflect a debit balance of allowance for doubtful debts so this represent that the company would have more written off account receivable that would be shown in the beginning balance of the allowance. Also the company should record the bad debt expense as more as the debit balance of the non-adjusted allowance
Hence, the last option is correct
