At the point when Hannah takes her first sweet from the sack, there is a 6/n chance it is orange.
This is because that there are 6 orange desserts and n desserts altogether.
When Hannah takes out her second sweet, there is a 5/(n-1) chance that it is orange.
This is because there are just 5 orange desserts let alone for an aggregate of n-1 desserts.
The possibility of getting two orange desserts in succession is the main likelihood increased by the second one: 6/n x 5/n–1
The question lets us know that the shot of Hannah getting two orange desserts is 1/3.
So: 6/n x 5/n–1 = 1/3
Now, rearrange this problem.
(6x5)/n(n-1) = 1/3
This gets to be:
30/(n² – n) = 1/3
Times by 3 on both sides:
90/(n² – n) = 1
What's more, doing likewise with (n² – n):
So (n² – n) = 90
Our answer is: n² – n – 90 = 0
Answer:
20 + 4y
Step-by-step explanation:
The 4 multiplies the 5 and the y, i.e., it distributes over the terms of the expression in ( ).
B) Parallelogram JKLM is translated and then dilated
as well as c
C) Parallelogram JKLM is dilated and translated
C is the best answer because is size is changing. In all the others nothing is changing except the position which remains congruent and similar but C does not . The sizes changes which makes them not congruent but still similar.
Answer:
Idk what u mean by fraction but 80% of 15 is 12
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
200.96cm^2 base area
Step-by-step explanation:
Eq of circle area = πr^2
= 3.14 x 8^2
3.14 x 64
200.96cm^2
.
