Answer:
The probability that 6 or more women would be laid off is P=0.08.
Step-by-step explanation:
In this case, we have a group of people and a proportion of women and men. We can think of the people laid off as a random sample taken from the population (all employees of the department).
The right model to represent that is with a binomial distribution. In this case, the sample size is n=8 and the probability of picking a woman is p=0.44.
According to this model, the probability that 6 or more women, out of 8 persons, would be laid off is:
Answer:
22 Nah I'm kidding, it's 4
Step-by-step explanation:
This was fun
The given function is
<span>f(x) = (x)(2x + 5)
and this should describe a situation with an output of area in square feet.
A rectangular plot with the length 5 feet longer than twice the width has an area that is equal to
</span>f(x) = (x)(2x + 5)
Answer:
a) -7/9
b) 16 / (n² + 15n + 56)
c) 1
Step-by-step explanation:
When n = 1, there is only one term in the series, so a₁ = s₁.
a₁ = (1 − 8) / (1 + 8)
a₁ = -7/9
The sum of the first n terms is equal to the sum of the first n−1 terms plus the nth term.
sₙ = sₙ₋₁ + aₙ
(n − 8) / (n + 8) = (n − 1 − 8) / (n − 1 + 8) + aₙ
(n − 8) / (n + 8) = (n − 9) / (n + 7) + aₙ
aₙ = (n − 8) / (n + 8) − (n − 9) / (n + 7)
If you wish, you can simplify by finding the common denominator.
aₙ = [(n − 8) (n + 7) − (n − 9) (n + 8)] / [(n + 8) (n + 7)]
aₙ = [n² − n − 56 − (n² − n − 72)] / (n² + 15n + 56)
aₙ = 16 / (n² + 15n + 56)
The infinite sum is:
∑₁°° aₙ = lim(n→∞) sₙ
∑₁°° aₙ = lim(n→∞) (n − 8) / (n + 8)
∑₁°° aₙ = 1
Hello,
In the table there are 8 tally marks for the cup landing on the open end. Therefore, we could say that the experimental probability of the cup landing on the open end is 8 out 20.
We can write this as the fraction 8/20 or as 40%.
Best of luck,
MrEQ
