Total number of balls = 50
Balls numbered as multiple of 10 = 5
Balls with red dot on them = 6
Balls numbered as multiple of 10 and having red dot on them = 1 (i.e. Ball with number 40 on it)
Probability of Ball being numbered as multiple of 10 = P(T) = 5/50 = 1/10
Probability of Ball being marked by the dot = P(D) = 6/50 = 3/25
Probability of Ball being numbered as multiple of 10 and having a red dot on it = P (T ∩ D) = 1/50
The "or" ,"union" of two events can be expressed as:
P(T ∪ D) = P(T) + P(D) - P (T ∩ D)
Using the values, we get:
P(T ∪ D) =
Thus, the probability that the ball is numbered with a multiple of 10 or has a red dot is 1/5 or 0.2
739 x 20, 734 x 9 I believe
If there's 100 cookies, of which there are 40 oatmeal raisin and 10 sugar cookies, there are 50 out of 100 cookies which you want. Hence by chance, there is a 50/100, or 1 in 2 chance of you obtaining an oatmeal raisin or a sugar cookie.
Hello,
<span>
Let's
x pairs of women’s shoes sold
</span>y<span> pairs of men’s shoes sold
R(x,y)=45*x+50y=2500 (each week)
Or the week, =0 =>50*y=2500=>y=500.
</span>
Answer:
To divide exponents (or powers) with the same base, subtract the exponents. Division is the opposite of multiplication, so it makes sense that because you add exponents when multiplying numbers with the same base, you subtract the exponents when dividing numbers with the same base.Quotient Rule: , this says that to divide two exponents with the same base, you keep the base and subtract the powers. This is similar to reducing fractions; when you subtract the powers put the answer in the numerator or denominator depending on where the higher power was located.
Step-by-step explanation:
Hope it helps please mark me as the brainliest