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timofeeve [1]
3 years ago
15

WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST!!!

Mathematics
1 answer:
Charra [1.4K]3 years ago
5 0
I think the answer will be A
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The efficiency for a steel specimen immersed in a phosphating tank is the weight of the phosphate coating divided by the metal l
34kurt

Answer:

Kindly check explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the data:

Temp. 174 176 177 178 178 179 180 181

Ratio 0.86 1.31 1.42 1.01 1.15 1.02 1.00 1.74

Temp. 184 184 184 184 184 185 185 186

Ratio 1.43 1.70 1.57 2.13 2.25 0.76 1.37 0.94

Temp. 186 186 186 188 188 189 190 192

Ratio 1.85 2.02 2.64 1.53 2.48 2.90 1.79 3.16

A)

Using the online linear regression calculator, the lie of best fit which models the data above is :

ŷ = 0.09386X - 15.55523

Where ;

X = independent variable

ŷ = predicted or dependent variable

- 15.55523 = intercept

0.09386 = gradient / slope

B)

Point estimate when tank temperature is 186

ŷ = 0.09386(186) - 15.55523

ŷ = 17.45796 - 15.55523

ŷ = 1.90273

C)

Residual error (y - ŷ), ŷ = 1.90273 when x = 186

(0.94 - 1.90273) = −0.96273

(1.85 - 1.90273) = −0.05273

(2.02 - 1.90273) = 0.11727

(2.64 - 1.90273) = 0.73727

D)

To determine the proportion of observed variation in efficiency ratio, we find the Coefficient of determination R^2, which can be found using the online Coefficient of determination calculator : the r^2 value obtained is 0.4433.

5 0
3 years ago
Last week, Jane made deposits of
liraira [26]

Answer:

b. $25

Step-by-step explanation:

64 + 25 + 37 - 52 - 49 = 25

6 0
3 years ago
Select the correct answer.
Alexeev081 [22]

Answer:

D.

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
0.000701 to a scientific notation
slega [8]

7.01×10^-4. udufhfhf

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
100 POINTS!!! ONLY 1 QUESTION! WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST. Please EXPLAIN how you got the answer
77julia77 [94]

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

its hard to explain but pretty much if you didn't know the ^x+1 is the x intercept except when its graphed its no marked at (1,0) its mark ate (-1,0) because it always takes the inverse

if you go over to the right 3 then your adding 3 to the x intercept or subtracting 3 from ^x+1 so it would be ^x-2

the y intercept part is easy all you have to do is subtract 2 from the y intercept so it would be +2

hope this helps :D

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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