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3 years ago

A jar pinto beans and black beans in a ratio of 1:1, and 300 of the beans are pinto beans. How many beans are there in the jar?

Mathematics

1 answer:

Serhud [2]3 years ago

8 0

Answer: 600 beans

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the beans are in a ratio 1:1, you can write it like this: x/x. Since we know x=300, we can do this: x/x=300/?. We know x is again 300(given) so, x/x=300/300. Total is adding the 2 beans up which is 300+300=600

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Sarah took the advertising department from her company on a round trip to meet with a potential client. Including Sarah a total

dimulka [17.4K]

You can set up a system of equations for this problem. x= number of coach tickets and y = number of first class tickets.

$210x + $1200y = $10,230 (cost of coach ticket plus cost of first class tickets is total budget)

x + y = 11 (number of coach tickets plus number of first class tickets is total number of people)

Solve the second equation for y to get y = 11 - x, then plug that into the first equation and solve for x:

$210x + $1200(11 - x) = $10,230

$210x + $13,200 - $1200x = $10,230

-$990x + $13,200 = $10,230

-$990x = $2,970

x = 3

Sarah bought x = 3 coach tickets. Plug that into the second equation and solve for y:

3 + y = 11

y = 8

Sarah bought y = 8 first class tickets.

6 0

2 years ago

In a fish tank 8over11 of the fish have a red stripe on them if 16 of the fish have stripes, how many total fish are

meriva

8/11 of what = 16

8/11x = 16
x = 16 * 11/8
x = 176/8
x = 22......so there are a total of 22 fish in the tank

8 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

in the following ordinary annuity interest is compounded with each payment and the payment is made at the end of the compounding

stealth61 [152]

Answer: $59313.58

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that formula we use to find the accumulated amount of the annuity ( ordinary annuity interest is compounded ) is given by :-

$FV=A(\frac{(1+\frac{r}{m})^{mt})-1}{\frac{r}{m}})$ , where A is the annuity payment deposit, r is annual interest rate , t is time in years and n is number of periods.

Given : Annuity payment deposit :A= $4500

rate of interest :r= 6%=0.06

No. of periods : m= 1 [∵ its annual]

Time : t= 10 years

Now we get,

$FV=(4500)(\frac{(1+\frac{0.06}{1})^{1\times10})-1}{\frac{0.06}{1}})\\\\\Rightarrow\ FV=(4500)(\frac{(1.06)^{10})-1}{0.06})\\\\\Rightarrow\ FV=(4500)(\frac{0.79084769654}{0.06})\\\\\Rightarrow\ FV=(4500)(13.1807949423)\\\\\Rightarrow\ FV=59313.5772407\approx59313.58 \ \$

∴ the accumulated amount of the annuity= $59313.58

4 0

3 years ago

Please help me !! (no this isnt a test/exam)

stiv31 [10]

Answer:

infinitely many

Step-by-step explanation:

Add 12-y to both sides of the second equation to put it into standard form like the first equation:

y +(12 -y) = (x -12) +(12 -y)

12 = x - y . . . simplify

x - y = 12 . . . . second equation in standard form

We see this is identical to the first equation. That means every solution of the first equation is also a solution of the second equation. There are infinitely many solutions.

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2 years ago

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Temka [501]

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2 years ago