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Butoxors [25]
3 years ago
11

There are 8 soccer teams for the 110 players in the league. The league wants the same number of players on each team. Which expl

ains whether or not it is possible?
A. It is possible to split the players into 8 teams because each team would have 13 players.
B. It is possible to split the players into 8 teams because each team would have 14 players.
C. It is not possible to split the players into 8 teams with the same number of players. It would be possible if there were a total of 100 players.
D. It is not possible to split the players into 8 teams with the same number of players. It would be possible if there were a total of 120 players.
Mathematics
2 answers:
seropon [69]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The answer is D

Step-by-step explanation:

When you divide 110 by 8 that equals 13.75 but when you divide 120 by 8 you get 15.

Hopefully this helps you :)

Furkat [3]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: the answer is ;D

Step-by-step explanation: it is not possible to split the players into eight teams.with the same number of players it would b possible if there were 120 players.

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Anna walks dogs to earn money. She saves $4 for every $10 she earns.
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
Jake used 1/6 of 30 pencils in a pack. How many pencils did jale used?
alexira [117]
30 pencils multiplied by 1/6 is equal to 30/6. Reduce 30/6 to lowest term by dividing 30 by 6. The quotient of 30 and 6 is 5. Therefore, Jake used 1/6 or 5 pencils of the 30 pencils in a pack.
5 0
3 years ago
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Find a coterminous angle between 0 and 2 pi for each given angle. 191pi/45
Sedaia [141]

Check the picture below.

let's recall that 2π is a full go-around or namely a revolution

\bf \cfrac{191}{45}\implies \cfrac{45+45+45+45+11}{45}\implies \cfrac{45}{45}+\cfrac{45}{45}+\cfrac{45}{45}+\cfrac{45}{45}+\cfrac{11}{45} \\\\\\ 1+1+1+1+\cfrac{11}{45}\implies \stackrel{\textit{and this more}}{\underset{\textit{2 go-around}}{\underset{\uparrow }{2+2}+\stackrel{\downarrow }{\cfrac{11}{45}}}}

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3 years ago
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jonny [76]
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7 0
3 years ago
State whether f is a function
Alenkinab [10]
<h2>Answer:</h2>

y=\pm (\frac{x}{6})^{\frac{1}{4}} \ is \ not \ a \ function

<h2>Step by step solution:</h2>

A function f from a set A to a set B is a relation that assigns to each element x in the set A exactly one element y in the set B. The set A is the domain (also called the set of inputs) of the function and the set B contains the range (also called the set of outputs). On the other hand, a function has an inverse function if and only if passes the Horizontal Line Test for Inverse Functions. This test tells us that a function f has an inverse function if and only if there is no any horizontal line that intersects the graph of f at more than one point. So the function is called one-to-one. The graph of f is shown below. As you can see, this function does not pass the Horizontal Line Test, therefore the inverse is not a function. However, let's find f^-{1}(x):

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and this is not a function because there are elements in the set of inputs that match with two elements in the set of outputs.

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3 years ago
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