Answer:
−π
----
4
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
Hey! The answer is: 0.56, 0.65, 4.56 ! Have a great day, bud!
9x squared over d
hope this helps:)
9514 1404 393
Answer:
$491.65
Step-by-step explanation:
The pay for the first 8 hours is $5.40 per hour × 8 hours = $43.20. Hours over 8 are paid at 1.5 × $5.40 = $8.10 per hour. There are at least 8 hours every day for the 6-day week. There are hours over 8 on Monday, Wednesday, Thursday, and Friday totaling 7 hours of overtime.
The amount of sales is more than $3000, so 4% will be paid on $3000, and 5% will be paid on the $1115 in excess of $3000.
So, the gross pay is ...
$43.20 × 6 + 8.10 × 7 = $315.90 . . . . wages
$3000 × .04 +1115 × .05 = $175.75 . . . commission
$315.90 +1.75.75 = $491.65 . . . . gross pay for the week
_____
It can be less tedious to let a spreadsheet do the calculations.
Answer:
a
Step-by-step explanation: