Answer:
A. Change in accounting principle (reported retrospectively) - PR
B. Change in accounting principle (exception reported prospectively) - PP
C. Change in estimate - E
D. Change in estimate resulting from a change in accounting principle - EP
E. Change in reporting entity - R
F. Correction of an error - N
Answer:
higher, stocks, flunctuates, risk, bonds, interest
Explanation:
The chosen responses are the best from the options provided. First, to earn a higher long-term rate of return, stocks offer a higher interest rate than bonds and the reason being that they are riskier.
Stocks belong to the owners of an organisation and as such, they are only entitled to interest after the interests of bond owners and preference stock holders have been settled. Meaning, despite the higher rates of interest offered, it is riskier to be a stock holder than a bond holder
Bond on the other hand, are not equity or company ownership units, they represent debts that the company must pay fixed interest rates on. Although we have the convertible to stock and the non-convertible bonds. However, bonds may be safer due to the fixed interest rates that must be paid but interests are lesser than stocks and irrespective of a company's profitability, a bond holder is only entitled to the fixed interest rate unlike the stock holder who enjoys higher dividends as a result of improved profitability.
Answer:
E. January 1, 2017
Explanation:
Financial statements are prepared showing at least two years for the sake of comparability.
It will be important for the company in presenting its financial statement using the IFRS for the year ended December 31st 2018 to show the financial statements for the year ended 31st December 2017 as if it had always applied the IFRS.
The basic idea is to show in the financial statements the effects of adopting the IFRS from a preceding period in order for the entity to show the financial statement for 2017 and 2018 and be able to compare them having been prepared on the same basis.
Thus, the transition date will be the beginning of the preceding period when the IFRS was applied (1st Jan. 2017 oe 31st Dec. 2016).
I hope this explanation makes the concept easy to grasp.
Thank you.
Answer:
Implicit costs do not require a direct monetary outlay by the firm, whereas explicit costs do.
Explanation:
Rent, salary, and other operating expenses are considered explicit costs. They are all recorded within a firm's financial statements, meaning they are present and clearly shown or reported as a separate cost. The main difference between the two types of costs is that implicit costs are opportunity costs, meaning that it is present but it is not initially shown or reported as a separate cost, while explicit costs are expenses paid with a company's own tangible assets. In other words, explicit costs are always shown, implicit costs are not, at least initially, exactly like the meaning words suggest.
Answer: The correct answer is "d. equal to average cost, including the opportunity cost of capital.".
Explanation: In the long run the prices charged by a firm in monopolistic competition will be equal to average cost, including the opportunity cost of capital.
In long-term monopolistic competition, the demand curve will be tangent to the average long-term cost and the price set at this level. The benefits will be equal to zero and therefore there will be no entry or exit of companies.
