Your first answer is correct but I’m not sure if your second is. But I’m leaning towards it is not correct.
Hope this helps!
(Don’t forget to mark branliest if it is correct :) )
X^2 - 8x - 6x + 48 i think
Answer:
.01%*
Step-by-step explanation:
Individually, they both have a rate of failure of 1%.
.01 x .01 = .0001
Therefore they have a combined probability of failure of .01%
*Disclaimer!!
I am not the best at this area in math so I would still reference against someone else's answer, but this is my best effort :)
4,000 in bank -500 and 15000 so she had -20000 +4000 so it equals -16000
