Answer:
They do not equal eachother
Step-by-step explanation:
-4(2+9) + 3 = 6 - 4(-3)
-12 - 36 + 3 = 6 + 12
-45 = 18
It is either A or D, but I think it’s A
The inverse of it is the inverse of that & thing u know
Personally I would say C because when you take good notes you can go over what you don’t remember. You can also use your notes as a study guide.
Answer:
the probability that a code word contains exactly one zero is 0.0064 (0.64%)
Step-by-step explanation:
Since each bit is independent from the others , then the random variable X= number of 0 s in the code word follows a binomial distribution, where
p(X)= n!/((n-x)!*x!*p^x*(1-p)^(n-x)
where
n= number of independent bits=5
x= number of 0 s
p= probability that a bit is 0 = 0.8
then for x=1
p(1) = n*p*(1-p)^(n-1) = 5*0.8*0.2^4 = 0.0064 (0.64%)
therefore the probability that a code word contains exactly one zero is 0.0064 (0.64%)
