Each persons share of rental will cost at least 400$ per month!!
Answer:
B.) 140 is your answer for your problem
Answer:
1. 7/41
2. 7/15
Step-by-step explanation:
1. Probability that it is a multiple of 6 given that it is a 2 digit number: There are 7 numbers that are a multiple of 6 and are 2 digits: 12, 18, 24, 30, 36, 42, and 48. There are 41 numbers that are 2 digits. So, it is 7/41
2. Probability that it is at least 20 given that it is prime. Out of the prime numbers from 1-50, 7 of them are at least 20 and there are 15 primes in that range in total. So, it is 7/15
Y⁴ + 12y² + 36
Now factorize the expression
y⁴ + 6y² + 6y² + 36
= y²(y² + 6) + 6(y² + 6)
= (y² + 6) (y² + 6)
<span>Now 6 is not the perfect square and according to rule, binomial can not be factored as the difference of two perfect squares.
</span>so multiply both.
(y² + 6)² is the answer.
What exactly was the purpose of posting this?
