Answer:
3=111
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
-8 + 14n
Step-by-step explanation:
-2(4-4n)+6n
Distribute the -2
-8 +8n+6n
Combine like terms
-8 + 14n
if indeed two functions are inverse of each other, then their composite will render a result of "x", namely, if g(x) is indeed an inverse of f(x), then
![\bf (g\circ f)(x)=x\implies g(~~f(x)~~)=x \\\\\\ \begin{cases} f(x) = 3x\\ g(x)=\cfrac{1}{3}x \end{cases}\qquad \qquad g(~~f(x)~~)=\cfrac{1}{3}[f(x)]\implies g(~~f(x)~~)=\cfrac{1}{3}(3x)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cbf%20%28g%5Ccirc%20f%29%28x%29%3Dx%5Cimplies%20g%28~~f%28x%29~~%29%3Dx%20%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%20%5Cbegin%7Bcases%7D%20f%28x%29%20%3D%203x%5C%5C%20g%28x%29%3D%5Ccfrac%7B1%7D%7B3%7Dx%20%5Cend%7Bcases%7D%5Cqquad%20%5Cqquad%20g%28~~f%28x%29~~%29%3D%5Ccfrac%7B1%7D%7B3%7D%5Bf%28x%29%5D%5Cimplies%20g%28~~f%28x%29~~%29%3D%5Ccfrac%7B1%7D%7B3%7D%283x%29)
The probability that they will pick neither the chocolate chip nor the walnut toppings is 0.3
We have
the total of all probabilities is 1.00, or 100%.
In the Venn diagram, we have the probabilities 0.2, 0.4 and 0.1; these sum to
0.2+0.4+0.1 = 0.6+0.1 = 0.7.
This leaves us 1.00-0.7 = 0.3 for the remaining probability of no toppings.
Learn more about Probability:
brainly.com/question/13604758
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