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Diano4ka-milaya [45]
2 years ago
13

Recall that the primes fall into three categories: Let Pi be the set of

Mathematics
1 answer:
a_sh-v [17]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Check the explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

(a)Let p be the smallest prime divisor of (n!)^2+1 if p<=n then p|n! Hence p can not divide (n!)^2+1. Hence p>n

(b) (n!)^2=-1 mod p now by format theorem (n!)^(p-1)= 1 mod p ( as p doesn't divide (n!)^2)

Hence (-1)^(p-1)/2= 1 mod p hence [ as p-1/2 is an integer] and hence( p-1)/2 is even number hence p is of the form 4k+1

(C) now let p be the largest prime of the form 4k+1 consider x= (p!)^2+1 . Let q be the smallest prime dividing x . By the previous exercises q> p and q is also of the form 4k+1 hence contradiction. Hence P_1 is infinite

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