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Diano4ka-milaya [45]
3 years ago
13

Recall that the primes fall into three categories: Let Pi be the set of

Mathematics
1 answer:
a_sh-v [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Check the explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

(a)Let p be the smallest prime divisor of (n!)^2+1 if p<=n then p|n! Hence p can not divide (n!)^2+1. Hence p>n

(b) (n!)^2=-1 mod p now by format theorem (n!)^(p-1)= 1 mod p ( as p doesn't divide (n!)^2)

Hence (-1)^(p-1)/2= 1 mod p hence [ as p-1/2 is an integer] and hence( p-1)/2 is even number hence p is of the form 4k+1

(C) now let p be the largest prime of the form 4k+1 consider x= (p!)^2+1 . Let q be the smallest prime dividing x . By the previous exercises q> p and q is also of the form 4k+1 hence contradiction. Hence P_1 is infinite

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(1) Let {v1,v2,v3} be a set of vectors in Rn . If u is Span {v1,v2,v3}, show that 3u is in Span {v1,v2,v3}.
Evgesh-ka [11]

Answer:

(1)

Multiplying by 3 both sides of the equality you get that

3u = 3c_1v_1+3c_2v_2+3c_3v_3

3u  is in the Span of the vectors \{v_1,v_2,v_3\}.

(2)

That's not true, consider the following counter example.

v_1 = (0,0,0,1)\\v_2 = (0,0,1,0)\\v_3 = (0,1,0,0)\\v_4 = (1,0,0,0)\\u = (0,1,1,1)

u is a linear combination of v_1,v_2,v_3 but is NOT a linear combination of v_1,v_2,v_3,v_4.

Step-by-step explanation:

(1)

As the hint indicates, you know that

u = c_1 v_1 + c_2v_2+c_3v_3

Then, if you multiply both sides of the equality by 3, you get that

3u = 3c_1v_1+3c_2v_2+3c_3v_3

And that's it. 3u  is in the Span of the vectors \{v_1,v_2,v_3\}

(2)

That's not true, consider the following counter example.

v_1 = (0,0,0,1)\\v_2 = (0,0,1,0)\\v_3 = (0,1,0,0)\\v_4 = (1,0,0,0)\\u = (0,1,1,1)

u is a linear combination of v_1,v_2,v_3 but is NOT a linear combination of v_1,v_2,v_3,v_4.

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