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kolezko [41]
2 years ago
11

If y is directly proportional to x and y = 5 when x =2, what is the value of y when x=6

Mathematics
2 answers:
sammy [17]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

y=15

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for direct variation is

y = kx

5 =k*2

Solve for k

Divide by 2

5/2 = k

y = 5/2 x

Now we substitute x=6

y = 5/2(6)

y = 15

Tasya [4]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

y = 15

Step-by-step explanation:

If the variables are directly proportional, increasing one by a factor of 3 will mean the other one also increases by a factor of 3.

6 is 3 times 2, so the value of y will be 3 times 5, or 15.

___

You can write the relation as a proportion:

y/x = 5/2 = ?/6

Multiplying by 6 gives ...

(5/2)·6 = ? = 15

___

Or, you can bother with an equation relating x and y:

y = kx

5 = k·2 . . . plug in the given values and solve for k

5/2 = k . . . divide by 2

Then ...

y = (5/2)·6 = 15 . . . . same as the proportion, above.

If you rearrange this to y = 5·(6/2) then you see the relation described at the beginning of this solution. The new value of y is the old value multiplied by the factor by which x changes.

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Alexeev081 [22]

Answer:

the answer is 9 inches

360/10=36

36*.25 =9

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Given f(x) = sin x and g(x) = cos x, find f(g(pi/2)) = 0. show all steps.
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6 0
2 years ago
The first day of Sam's vacation was a Monday. What day of the week was the Day 36 of Sam's vacation?
makvit [3.9K]

Answer:

A. Monday

Step-by-step explanation:

The solution to this problem can be found by creating a table

If Day 1 was Monday, then

Mon    Tues      Wed      Thur    Fri      Sat      Sun

1              2           3             4        5        6          7

8             9           10           11        12       13        14

...............

We can see that the multiples of 7 are falling on Sundays so we will divide 36 by 7 to get the closest multiple of 7 to 36.

The closest multiple of 7 near 36 is 35 so Day 35th will fall on Sunday and Day 36 will be on Monday

Hence, Option A is the correct answer..

3 0
3 years ago
Explain how counting number of girls in five children family can be treated as a binomial experiment. What assumptions are neces
Juliette [100K]

This is a binomial experiment and you'll use the binomial probability distribution because:

  1. There are two choices for each birth. Either you get a girl or you get a boy. So there are two outcomes to each trial. This is where the "bi" comes from in "binomial" (bi means 2).
  2. Each birth is independent of any other birth. The probability of getting a girl is the same for each trial. In this case, the probability is p = 1/2 = 0.5 = 50%
  3. There are fixed number of trials. In this case, there are 5 births so n = 5 is the number of trials.

Since all of those conditions above are met, this means we have a binomial experiment.

Some textbooks may split up item #2 into two parts, but I chose to place them together since they are similar ideas.

8 0
3 years ago
Any one help me with this plsss and ni links plss!!
Bas_tet [7]

Answer:

6. D.

7.  F.

8. A.

9. B.

10. C.

Step-by-step explanation:

6.     9 + (12 - 10)

       12 - 10 = 2

        9 + 2 = 11

7.      (20 - 15) x 2

        20 - 15 = 5

         5 x 2 = 10

8.      10 ÷ 5 + 7

         10 ÷ 5 = 2

          2 + 7 = 9

9.        6 + 2 x 3

           2 x 3 = 6

           6 + 6 = 12

10.        (2 x 4) + 8

             2 x 4 = 8

             8 + 8 = 16

Let me know if this helps!

4 0
2 years ago
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