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gladu [14]
4 years ago
5

The Miller Company earned $190,000 of revenue on account during Year 1. There was no beginning balance in the accounts receivabl

e and allowance accounts. During Year 1, Miller collected $136,000 of cash from its receivables accounts. The company estimates that it will be unable to collect 3% of its sales on account. What is the amount of uncollectible accounts expense that will be recognized on the Year 1 income statement?
Business
1 answer:
Rama09 [41]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The amount of uncollectible accounts expense that will be recognized on the Year 1 income statement is $1,620.

Explanation:

To arrive at the amount of uncollectible accounts expense that will be recognized on the Year 1 income statement, we simply need to calculate 3% of the company's sales on account balance, as follows:

3% of ($190,000 - $136,000) = $1,620

So, $1,620 would be the bad debt expense that will be recorded in Year 1 income statement, since there is no opening balance of sales on account and allowance for doubtful accounts.

Also, note that the collection on account during the year would reduce the sales on account balance, as shown above.

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For each separate case, record an adjusting entry (if necessary). Barga Company purchases $20,000 of equipment on January 1. The
seraphim [82]

Answer:

Explanation:

Depreciation: It is a reduction value in the assets due to tear and wear, usage of fixed assets, obsolesce. The depreciation expense is shown in the income statement whereas the accumulated depreciation is shown in the balance sheet under the assets and this amount is deducted from the value of the fixed assets

The adjusting entries are shown below:

For equipment:

Depreciation expense A/c - Equipment Dr $3,600

        To Accumulated depreciation - Equipment $3,600

(Being depreciation expense adjusted)

For land:

No journal entry is required as land is not depreciated.

6 0
3 years ago
Provide responses to the following questions 1. What is the purpose of a staffing management plan? What does it address?
ryzh [129]

Answer:

Explained below:

Explanation:

A staffing management plan refers to the plan produced to help businesses primarily identify and later procure the workers at all levels and in all departments of the business organization. The purposes of a staffing management plan to :  

Classify staffing needs.

Build timelines.

Establish funds considerations.

Devise and implement talent acquisition strategies.

Construct and execute an on boarding schedule.

Identify and design suitable training bodies and methods.

Follow the plan until it reaches effectiveness.

It addresses the requirements of the organization in many ways, depending upon its business model, its structure, and the system in which it finishes projects and reaches deadlines.

4 0
3 years ago
Generally speaking the opportunity recognition process consists of two phases of activity. they are ________ and ________.
Lilit [14]
<span>Recognition process consists of two phases of activity, they are "discovery" and "evaluation".

</span>

Opportunity discovery<span> is a deliberate advancement process that creates new thoughts, consolidates them to frame potential openings, and after that distinguishes the most encouraging ones for analysis that sets up the reason for business improvement and while complete evaluation of a business opportunity incorporates a hazard evaluation. A genuine evaluation of the potential dangers innate in your new business can enable you to get ready for conceivable issues and choose whether the dangers are worth the investment. </span>

6 0
3 years ago
Hazel Morrison, a mutual fund manager, has a $40 million portfolio with a beta of 1.00. The risk-free rate is 4.25%, and the mar
lianna [129]

Answer:

average beta of the new stocks to achieve the target required rate of return is 2.29

Explanation:

given data

Portfolio amount invested = $40,000,000

Beta = 1  

Risk free rate = 4.25%

Market risk premium = 6%

Hazel expects = $60 million

expected return new investments = 13.00%

to find out

average beta of new stocks be to achieve the target required rate of return

solution

we will use here CAPM formula that is  

Expected return = Risk free rate + Beta × Market risk premium    .........1

put here value we get  

13% = 4.25% + Beta × 6%

0.06 × Beta = 13% - 4.25%

Beta = 1.458

now we get Weighted beta that is express as

Weighted beta = weight of old stock in new portfolio × 1 + Weight of new stock in new portfolio × beta of new stock    ..................2

put here value we get

1.458 = \frac{40}{(40+22)} * 1 +\frac{22}{(22+22)} * debt

solve it we get

beta = 2.29

so that average beta of the new stocks to achieve the target required rate of return is 2.29

8 0
3 years ago
If Vera buys 1/2 of of a kilogram of nuts,how much will she spend?
user100 [1]

Explanation:

she will only spend according to what the shopkeeper says

7 0
3 years ago
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