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3 years ago

By definition, future value is?

Mathematics

2 answers:

Nikolay [14]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

Future value is the value of an item calculated after certain years on a given value at a given certain interest rate.

Future value is always increasing in nature and when future value is decreasing it is know as Depreciate value.

And is calculated using the formula as stated

$FV=P(1+\frac{r}{100} )^n$

Where P is the principal amount that is the given amount for which we have t calculate the future value.

r is the rate of interest and it is the rate at which the given principal value is increasing.

n is the time period for which the principal value is kept.

Yuki888 [10]3 years ago

3 0

Future value is the value of an asset at a specific date. It measures the nominal future sum of money that a given sum of money is "worth" at a specified time in the future assuming a certain interest rate, or more generally, the rate of return; it is the present value multiplied by the accumulation function.

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Verdich [7]

Answer: 41

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

If c is the line segment connecting (x1,y1) to (x2,y2), show that the line integral of xdy-ydx=x1y2-x2y1......this is in a chapt

MatroZZZ [7]

Green's theorem doesn't really apply here. GT relates the line integral over some *closed* connected contour that bounds some region (like a circular path that serves as the boundary to a disk). A line segment doesn't form a region since it's completely one-dimensional.

At any rate, we can still compute the line integral just fine. It's just that GT is irrelevant.

We parameterize the line segment by

$\mathbf r(t)=\langle x_1,y_1\rangle(1-t)+\langle x_2,y_2\rangle t$
$\implies\mathbf r(t)=\langle x_1+(x_2-x_1)t,y_1+(y_2-y_1)t\rangle$

with $0\le t\le1$ . Then we find the differential:

$\mathbf r(t)\equiv\langle x,y\rangle=\langle x_1+(x_2-x_1)t,y_1+(y_2-y_1)t\rangle$
$\implies\mathrm d\mathbf r\equiv\langle\mathrm dx,\mathrm dy\rangle=\langle x_2-x_1,y_2-y_1\rangle\,\mathrm dt$

with $0\le t\le1$ .

Here, the line integral is

$\displaystyle\int_{\mathcal C}x\,\mathrm dy-y\,\mathrm dx=\int_{\mathcal C}\langle-y,x\rangle\cdot\langle\mathrm dx,\mathrm dy\rangle$
$=\displaystyle\int_{t=0}^{t=1}\langle-y_1-(y_2-y_1)t,x_1+(x_2-x_1)t\rangle\cdot\langle x_2-x_1,y_2-y_1\rangle\,\mathrm dt$
$=\displaystyle\int_{t=0}^{t=1}(x_1y_2-x_2y_1)\,\mathrm dt$
$=(x_1y_2-x_2y_1)\displaystyle\int_{t=0}^{t=1}\,\mathrm dt$
$=x_1y_2-x_2y_1$

as required.

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4 years ago

Which class has 32% girls?

Luden [163]

Class B has 32% girls because 50 x 32% (or .32) equals 16

Hope this helps!

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4 years ago

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3 years ago

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Anastaziya [24]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

x^2+x-42=0

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2 years ago