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Darina [25.2K]
3 years ago
6

-2(3x-4)=-8x Solve for x

Mathematics
2 answers:
jonny [76]3 years ago
5 0
The answer is -4 because you have to distribute the -2
never [62]3 years ago
3 0
The answer x equals -4
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That's the question ?? ​
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Step-by-step explanation:

Before we answer, the area of a Circle given it radius is

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An urn contains n white balls andm black balls. (m and n are both positive numbers.) (a) If two balls are drawn without replacem
Genrish500 [490]

DISCLAIMER: Please let me rename b and w the number of black and white balls, for the sake of readability. You can switch the variable names at any time and the ideas won't change a bit!

<h2>(a)</h2>

Case 1: both balls are white.

At the beginning we have b+w balls. We want to pick a white one, so we have a probability of \frac{w}{b+w} of picking a white one.

If this happens, we're left with w-1 white balls and still b black balls, for a total of b+w-1 balls. So, now, the probability of picking a white ball is

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Case 2: both balls are black

The exact same logic leads to a probability of

\dfrac{b}{b+w}\cdot \dfrac{b-1}{b+w-1}=\dfrac{b(b-1)}{(b+w)(b+w-1)}

These two events are mutually exclusive (we either pick two whites or two blacks!), so the total probability of picking two balls of the same colour is

\dfrac{w(w-1)}{(b+w)(b+w-1)}+\dfrac{b(b-1)}{(b+w)(b+w-1)}=\dfrac{w(w-1)+b(b-1)}{(b+w)(b+w-1)}

<h2>(b)</h2>

Case 1: both balls are white.

In this case, nothing changes between the two picks. So, you have a probability of \frac{w}{b+w} of picking a white ball with the first pick, and the same probability of picking a white ball with the second pick. Similarly, you have a probability \frac{b}{b+w} of picking a black ball with both picks.

This leads to an overall probability of

\left(\dfrac{w}{b+w}\right)^2+\left(\dfrac{b}{b+w}\right)^2 = \dfrac{w^2+b^2}{(b+w)^2}

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<h2>(c)</h2>

We want to prove that

\dfrac{w^2+b^2}{(b+w)^2}\geq \dfrac{w(w-1)+b(b-1)}{(b+w)(b+w-1)}

Expading all squares and products, this translates to

\dfrac{w^2+b^2}{b^2+2bw+w^2}\geq \dfrac{w^2+b^2-b-w}{b^2+2bw+w^2-b-w}

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\dfrac{x}{y}\geq \dfrac{x-k}{y-k}

With x and y greater than k. This inequality is true whenever the numerator is smaller than the denominator:

\dfrac{x}{y}\geq \dfrac{x-k}{y-k} \iff xy-kx \geq xy-ky \iff -kx\geq -ky \iff x\leq y

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  3. k=b+w which ensures that k<x (and thus k<y), because b and w are integers, and so b<b^2 and w<w^2

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