Julie would reach her goal first. Julie would reach her goal in approximately 316 days while it would take Mary approximately 333 days to reach it.
I know this because the steps to solve the problem are:
1.) 1,000/12 = 83.333 (to find how many days it would take her everyday)
2.) 83.333x4 = 333 (multiplying the answer by four makes it every four days)
3.) determine that it takes Mary 333 days
4.) 1,000/19 = 52.631 (just like step 1 but with different numbers)
5.) 52.631x6 = 316 (just like in step 2 but different numbers)
6.) determine it takes Julie 316 days
7.) 316 < 333 (takes Julie less time)
Answer:
95.64% probability that pledges are received within 40 days
Step-by-step explanation:
Problems of normally distributed samples are solved using the z-score formula.
In a set with mean
and standard deviation
, the zscore of a measure X is given by:

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.
In this problem, we have that:

What is the probability that pledges are received within 40 days
This is the pvalue of Z when X = 40. So



has a pvalue of 0.9564
95.64% probability that pledges are received within 40 days
Answer:
Binomial probability, with 
Step-by-step explanation:
For each time Mookie Betts went to bat, there were only two possible outcomes. Either he got a base-hit, or he did not. The probability of getting a hit on each at-bat is independent of any other at-bat. This means that we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
Probability of exactly x sucesses on n repeated trials, with p probability.
His average was 0.352.
This means that 
Assume he has five times at bat tonight in the Red Sox-Yankees game.
This means that 
a. This is an example of what type of probability
Binomial probability, with 
Answer: 200km
Step-by-step explanation:
200 mm and 200cm are too small.
Answer:
<h3>C. They are both perfect squares and perfect cubes.</h3>
Step-by-step explanation:
Perfect squares are numbers that their square root can be found easily without any remainder.
Given the following patterns;
1*1 = 1 and 1*1*1 = 1
It can be seen that 1 is 1 perfect square since 1*1 = 1² = 1
Also 1 is perfect cube since 1*1*1 = 1³ = 1 (cube of the value gives 1)
Similarly for the expression;
8*8 = 64
8² = 64 (since the square of 8 gives 64, then 64 is known to be a perfect square)
Also 4*4*4 = 64
i.e 4³ = 64 (This shows that the cube root of 64 is 4 making it a perfect cube since we can get a whole number for the cube root of 64)
The same is applicable for other expressions 729 = 27 × 27, and 9 × 9 × 9, 4,096 = 64 × 64, and 16 × 16 × 16
This values are easily expressed as a constant multiple of a number showing that they are both perfect squares and perfect cubes.