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kupik [55]
3 years ago
7

When actual output exceeds potential, firms have an easy time keeping production in line with the high demand. Firms therefore l

ower their prices by more than the usual amount in an attempt to cover increased production costs. When actual output falls below potential, firms easily keep production in line with the high demand. Firms therefore raise their prices by more than the usual amount in an attempt to cover increased production costs. When actual output exceeds potential, firms struggle to keep production in line with the high demand. Firms therefore raise their prices by more than the usual amount in an attempt to cover increased production costs. When actual output exceeds potential, firms struggle to keep production in line with the high demand. Firms therefore lower their prices with decreased production costs.
A. True
B. False
Business
1 answer:
Diano4ka-milaya [45]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: When actual output exceeds potential

Firms raise their prices by more than the usual amount in an attempt to cover increased production costs.

Explanation: The price level rises because employers have to raise wage rates to entice more people into the labor market and employers have to pay more for other inputs that become more expensive to produce.

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The U.S. Bureau of Economic Analysis​ (BEA) has recently adopted a new approach to calculate real GDP and real GDP growth to cor
pashok25 [27]

One of the features of the new approach is​ that, now BEA uses the geometric average of fixed weight indexes and uses two base years to calculate the growth rate of real GDP between two consecutive years.

Explanation:

In both actual and nominal GDP, the U.S. Economic Analysis Department results. It estimates the real United States. GDP is a fixed base year annual rate. Imports and international sales from American businesses and people are exempt.

GDP reflects the degree to which the economy generates production. Global warming is not generated and not part of GDP. The effect of environmental damage is not measured accurately. The loss should not be included in GDP and the calculation of environmental damage has not been accepted.

3 0
3 years ago
Turnbull Co. is considering a project that requires an initial investment of $1,708,000. The firm will raise the $1,708,000 in c
exis [7]

Answer:

The weighted cost of capital for the project which is also the project discount rate is 10.12%

Explanation:

WACC=Ke*E/V+Kd*D/V*(1-t)+Kp*P/V

Ke is the cost of equity of 13.2%

Kd is the cost of debt of 8.7%

Kp is the cost of preferred stock of 9.9%

E is the market value of equity raised of $880,000

D is the market value of debt issued of $750,000

P is the amount of preferred stock sold to investors of $78,000

V is the sum of the market values above=$880,000+$750,000+$78,000=$1708000

WACC=(13.2%*880,000/1708,000)+(8.7%*750,000/1708,000*(1-0.25))+(9.9%*78,000/1708000)=10.12%

8 0
3 years ago
g Use the following abbreviations to answer this question: O Operating activities item I Investing activities item F Financing a
Furkat [3]

Answer and Explanation:

The cash flow statement includes three types of activities which are listed below:

1. Operating activities: It includes those transactions that after net income affect the working capital. It would subtract the increase in current assets and a decrease in current liabilities, while adding the reduction in current assets and a rise in current liabilities.

It would adjust those changes in working capital. In addition, the depreciation costs are added to the net income and the loss on the sale of assets is added, while the benefit on the sale of assets is subtracted

2. Investing activities: it tracks activities that involve purchasing and selling long-term properties. The purchase is a cash outflow while the sale is a cash inflow

3. Financing activities: it records activities that have an impact on long-term liability and equity balance of shareholders. Share issue is a cash inflow whereas redemption and dividend are cash outflows.

Based on this the classification are as follows

a. Payment of employee wages = Operating activities O = Outflow of cash deducted from the net income

b. Cash collected from customers for sales  = Operating activities O = Inflow of cash added from the net income

c. Payment of dividends = Financing activities F = Outflow of cash represents in a negative sign

d. Purchase of land for an office building  = Investing activities I = Outflow of cash represents in a negative sign

e. Repayment of debt owed to a financial institution = Financing activities F = Outflow of cash represents in a negative sign

f. Purchase of shares of another company = Financing activities F

g. Cash received as rent payment from a tenant in a building owned by the company = Operating activities O = Inflow of cash added from the net income

h. Issuance of shares =  Financing activities F = Inflow of cash represents in a positive sign

7 0
3 years ago
The effective rate of a $25,000 non-interest-bearing simple discount 10%, 90-day note is
Vlada [557]
<span>For the answer to the question above, the $25,000 due in 90 days.
 I'll use 365 days per year. 10% simple discount:
25000*0.10(90/365) = 616.44
Cash in hand at the beginning of the 90 days:
25000 - 616.44 = 24,383.56

Solve for r: 616.44 = 24383.56*r*(90/365) 

r = 0.10252837 or the nearest answer is letter <span>C. 10.26%
It is not exact because maybe he rounded  off the </span></span>24383.56 
5 0
3 years ago
One major difference between a merchandiser’s master budget and a manufacturer’s master budget is that A : a merchandiser does n
goldfiish [28.3K]

Answer:

A

Explanation:

A merchandise prepares a budget in line with the Trading profit and loss Account, while a Manufacturer prepares a budget in line with the Manufacturing and profit and loss account.. under the Manufacturing account we have prime cost which consist of direct labor, direct material and direct expenses. then add it to Manufacturing overheads.

5 0
4 years ago
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